[B-Greek] The Infinitive
Mitch Larramore
mitchlarramore at yahoo.com
Mon Aug 20 11:42:03 EDT 2007
All the grammars I've checked use the following way of
defining the infinitive:
to + infinitive
My question is this: Isn't the "to" a part of the
infinitive? The infinite BAPTIZEIN means "to baptize"
rather than "baptize." So, why isn't the "to" part of
the definition of the infinitive so that the following
way is used:
"to + verbal noun" = infinitive
Mitch Larramore
Sugar Land, Texas
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