[B-Greek] PASAN TE THN CWRAN THS IOUDAIOS (Acts 26:20)--a Hebraism?
George F Somsel
gfsomsel at yahoo.com
Wed Dec 12 21:07:45 EST 2007
161. (1) The accusative of the extent of space in response to the questions ‘how far? how long?’ etc. needs no amplification (Lk 22:41 ἀπεσπάσθη ἀπʼ αὐτῶν ὡσεὶ λίθου βολήν [APESPASQH AP' AUTWN hWSEI LIQOU BOLHN]; 2:44; Jn 6:19). Except for stereotyped μακράν [MAKRAN] (§§34(2); 184), only ὁδὸν θαλάσσης [hODON QALASSHS] Mt 4:15 OT (Is 8:23 where it is a back-reading from the NT as can be seen from its position in the context: Katz; LXX also elsewhere, e.g. Dt 11:30, cf. Johannessohn i 75) as a literal translation of Hebr. דֶּרֶךְ [DeReK], Lat. versus, need be considered (cf. §166). Furthermore, the occasional replacement of the accusative by ἀπό [APO] and a genitive in response to the question ‘how far away?’—a usage which corresponds to Latin (Caesar, B. G. 2.7.3 a milibus passuum duobus)—is proved to be good Greek by parallel appearances with πρό [PRO] (§213) and
μετά [META] (cf. W. Schulze, Graeca Latina 15ff.): Jn 11:18 ἦν Βηθανία ἐγγὺς τῶν Ἱερ., ὡς ἀπὸ σταδίων δεκαπέντε [HN BHQANIA EGGUS TWN hIER. hWS APO STADIWN DEKAPENTE]. A 26:20 πᾶσάν τε τὴν χώραν [PASAN TE THN XWRAN] (v.l. εἰς π. τ. χ. [EIS P. T. X.); Bonaccorsi 457f.: if correct then a Hebraistic acc. of place. (2) The accusative is used for extent of time in response to the question ‘how long?’ (cf. however dat. §201): Jn 2:12 ἔμειναν οὐ πολλὰς ἡμέρας [EMEINAN POLLAS hHMERAS]. The distributive use is also old: Mt 20:2 συμφωνεῖν ἐκ δηναρίου τὴν ἡμέραν [SUMFWNEIN ED DHNARIOU THN hHMERAN] ‘per diem’ (Mayser ii 2, 333). (3) In the case of ὥρα [hWRA] the accusative is classical, answering the question ‘when?’: Jn 4:52 ἐχθὲς ὥραν ἑβδόμην [EXQES hWRAN hEBDOMHN]; in the NT, however, it also
appears in τὴν ἡμέραν τῆς πεντηκοστῆς [THN hHMERAN THS PENTHKOSTHS] A 20:16 (εἰς τὴν ἡ. [EIS THN hH.] D) as well as in τὸ δειλινόν [TO DEILINON], τὸ πρωΐ [TO PRWI] (§160). Otherwise the dative has strongly encroached upon the domain of the accusative; s. §§200(2); 201.—Mayser ii 2, 330ff.; Smyth §§1580ff.; Rob. 469f.
Blass, F., Debrunner, A., & Funk, R. W. (1961). A Greek grammar of the New Testament and other early Christian literature (88). Chicago: University of Chicago Press.
It would seem that what he is speaking of as Hebraistic is the use of the accusative to express extent without the use of a preposition since he says "occasional replacement of the accusative by ἀπό [APO] and a genitive … is proved to be good Greek by parallel appearances with πρό."
george
gfsomsel
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----- Original Message ----
From: Webb Mealy <webb at selftest.net>
To: Biblical Greek <b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Wednesday, December 12, 2007 8:20:21 PM
Subject: [B-Greek] PASAN TE THN CWRAN THS IOUDAIOS (Acts 26:20)--a Hebraism?
ALLA TOIS EN DAMASKWi PRWTON TE KAI hIEROSOLUMOIS, PASAN TE THN CWRAN THS
IOUDAIOS, KAI TOIS EQNESIN APAGGELLON METANOEIN KAI EPISTREFEIN EPI TON
QEON…(Acts 26:20)
BDF para. 161(1), quotes with apparent approval the idea that the use of
accusatives in PASAN TE THN CWRAN THS IOUDAIOS is “Hebraistic”. Is there a
native Greek explanation for it?
Webb Mealy
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