[B-Greek] Question for Discussion About EIMI

frjsilver at optonline.net frjsilver at optonline.net
Wed Dec 26 20:54:23 EST 2007


Christ is born, glorify Him!

Dear Friends --

I realize that this is a little oblique to the discussion of the text, but I thought you'd like to know that --from earliest times -- ikons of Jesus Christ have almost always included the inscription hO WN around His head.  You know where this designation originates in The 70, and surely you can think of the NT passages which affirm this, and why.

Orthodox Christians consider accurately transmitted ikons, like the Bible itself, as part of the written part of the Tradition, so this might come as a bit of a surprise to people not used to venerating holy images.

We now resume regular programming.

All the blessings of Christ's birth to you and yours!

Father James

Monk James Silver
Orthodox Church in America

----- Original Message -----
From: "Hugh Donohoe Jr." 
Date: Wednesday, December 26, 2007 8:09 pm
Subject: [B-Greek] Question for Discussion About EIMI
To: blist greek 

> I agree the memorial name is not translated simply EGW
> EIMI. Yes, I always wondered why John never put the
> whole name (with hO WN) in Jesus' mouth if he intended
> a declaration of Deity. But allusions are allowed in
> literature. We must allow John the right to such
> devices. We do not have the ipissima verba of Jesus in
> John's gospel. Jesus' words are being filtered through
> John into Greek. I'll leave it to the Semitists to
> wrangle about the Aramaic behind the text and its
> similarities to the Hebrew Text. 
> 
> I get what you are asking. Just because EIMI is part
> of a translation (pun/explanation/etymology) of the
> divine name does it warrant a place in BDAG? Perhaps
> being an English speaker has made the EGW EIMI stand
> out more in my mind because many translations use the
> "I AM" for that passage (in Exodus). I guess the big
> question is how did Jesus audience understand it? How
> did Jesus intend it? These are questions beyond the
> scope of this forum. 
> 
> But linguistically and lexicographically speaking, do
> allusions warrant a place in the usages of a lexeme?
> 
> I guess that is my ultimate question. But even this
> question is pushing the parameters of this list.
> 
> Thanks for your critique of my question.
> 
> Hugh J. Donahue Jr.
> 
> Does the LXX really translate Gods name specifically
> as EIMI?
> 
> I see no examples of this.
> 
> You refer to the translation of the Hebrew 'haya
> ashser haya' which seems to 
> be an explanation/pun/or etymology of the divine name
> YHWH.
> 
> As you quote the LXX translates
> EGO EIMI hO WN
> 
> Brenton translates "I am THE BEING" (see below)
> 
> hO WN 'The Being' is the predicate nominative of the
> clause and in the next 
> line hO WN is used again as the verbal subject. So
> EIMI is not the name of 
> the one sending Moses, it is hO WN 'The Being'. EIMI
> is just being used as a 
> copula verb, not as a name.
> 
> If John has this verse in mind as you suggest,
> wouldn't he have used hO WN?
> 
> 
> 
> Brenton's translation:
> Exodus 3:13-14 13 And Moses said to God, Behold, I
> shall go forth to the 
> children of Israel, and shall say to them, The God of
> our fathers has sent 
> me to you; and they will ask me, What is his name?
> What shall I say to them? 
> 14 And God spoke to Moses, saying, I am THE BEING; and
> he said, Thus shall 
> ye say to the children of Israel, THE BEING has sent
> me to you.
> 
> 
> Warm Regards
> Robert Newman
> 
> 
> 
> 
> 
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