[B-Greek] Prepositional phrase
Matthew Hauck
matt at matthauck.com
Fri Feb 9 01:17:26 EST 2007
Thank you for your quick response!
I read about the substantive construction in Mounce, but saw nothing
about the attributive.
How about the Matthew 6:23 example? Does it not seem to be reverse?
Would not the EN SOI be modifying TO SKOTOS and not TO FWS? How do we
end up with "the light in you is darkness" instead of "the darkness in
you is light"?
-Matt
On 2/9/07, David E. Kiefer, Registrar <dkiefer at fuller.edu> wrote:
> This is an attributive construction, the article being used to indicate
> that the prepositional phrase is being used to describe the noun.
> Otherwise, prepositional phrases in NT Greek are inherently adverbial,
> i.e. they describe the action of the verb in some way. In English, word
> order is enough to connect a prepositional phrase to a noun (e.g. simply
> following a noun). This is normally not enough in NT Greek.
>
> You will also find the article preceding a prepositional phrase, with NO
> noun accompanying it, in a substantive use, e.g. TA EN TWi KOSMWi, "the
> things in the world."
>
> Both uses are parallel to the attributive and substantive constructions
> used with adjectives. This is quite common; there are over 900 examples
> of this attributive or substantive use of the prepositional phrase in
> the NT.
>
>
> Matthew Hauck wrote:
> > Greetings!
> >
> > I am a beginner currently studying Greek from Mounce's textbook.
> > Somehow, I came across a strange construction that I haven't really
> > seen before, and wasn't sure what it meant.
> >
> > There is sometimes an "article + noun" separated by a prepositional phrase.
> >
> > Examples:
> >
> > Matt 6:23 - "...EI OUN TO FWS *TO EN SOI SKOTOS* ESTIN..."
> >
> > 1 Peter 1:11 contains, "TO EN AUTOIS PNEUMA CRISTOU", "TA EIS CRISTON
> > PAQHMATA" and "TAS META TAUTA DOXAS"
> >
> > Does this construction add any significance in emphasis or something?
> > I couldn't seem to find anything in Mounce or Wallace.
> >
> > Why not say "TAS DOXAS META TAUTA"? It seems to be saying "the after
> > these things glories." Does this highlight the noun or the
> > prepositional phrase?
> >
> > I am particularly interested in the Matthew example. Following the way
> > 1 Peter translates it, the phrase in Matthew would seem to say, "the
> > in you darkness" --> "the darkness in you". Thus the verse would say,
> > "If then the light is the darkness in you" --> "If then the darkness
> > in you is light." But everybody translates this, "If then the light in
> > you is darkness."
> >
> > What am I missing?
> >
> > Thanks!
> >
> >
>
> --
> __________________________
>
> David E. Kiefer, Registrar
> Fuller Theological Seminary
> 135 N Oakland Ave
> Pasadena, CA 91182
>
> dkiefer at fuller.edu
> Phone 626-584-5409
> Fax 626-584-5564
>
> ---
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--
to the praise of the glory of His grace,
Matthew Hauck
0920.111.204
http://matthauck.blogspot.com/
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