[B-Greek] Prepositional phrase

Matthew Hauck matt at matthauck.com
Fri Feb 9 02:54:43 EST 2007


Aha! Genius! Thank you. =)

-Matt

On 2/9/07, David E. Kiefer, Registrar <dkiefer at fuller.edu> wrote:
> Since both FWS and SKOTOS are neuter, it's a matter of how you group the
> constructions. Is it (TO FWS TO EN SOI) SKOTOS ESTIN, or is it TO FWS (TO EN
> SOI SKOTOS) ESTIN. That's a matter for context, which in this case is rather
> obvious.
>
>
> Matthew Hauck wrote:
> Thank you for your quick response!

I read about the substantive
> construction in Mounce, but saw nothing
about the attributive.

How about
> the Matthew 6:23 example? Does it not seem to be reverse?
Would not the EN
> SOI be modifying TO SKOTOS and not TO FWS? How do we
end up with "the light
> in you is darkness" instead of "the darkness in
you is light"?

-Matt

On
> 2/9/07, David E. Kiefer, Registrar <dkiefer at fuller.edu> wrote:

> This is an attributive construction, the article being used to indicate
that
> the prepositional phrase is being used to describe the noun.
Otherwise,
> prepositional phrases in NT Greek are inherently adverbial,
i.e. they
> describe the action of the verb in some way. In English, word
order is
> enough to connect a prepositional phrase to a noun (e.g. simply
following a
> noun). This is normally not enough in NT Greek.

You will also find the
> article preceding a prepositional phrase, with NO
noun accompanying it, in a
> substantive use, e.g. TA EN TWi KOSMWi, "the
things in the world."

Both
> uses are parallel to the attributive and substantive constructions
used with
> adjectives. This is quite common; there are over 900 examples
of this
> attributive or substantive use of the prepositional phrase in
the
> NT.


Matthew Hauck wrote:

> Greetings!

I am a beginner currently studying Greek from Mounce's
> textbook.
Somehow, I came across a strange construction that I haven't
> really
seen before, and wasn't sure what it meant.

There is sometimes an
> "article + noun" separated by a prepositional phrase.

Examples:

Matt 6:23
> - "...EI OUN TO FWS *TO EN SOI SKOTOS* ESTIN..."

1 Peter 1:11 contains, "TO
> EN AUTOIS PNEUMA CRISTOU", "TA EIS CRISTON
PAQHMATA" and "TAS META TAUTA
> DOXAS"

Does this construction add any significance in emphasis or
> something?
I couldn't seem to find anything in Mounce or Wallace.

Why not
> say "TAS DOXAS META TAUTA"? It seems to be saying "the after
these things
> glories." Does this highlight the noun or the
prepositional phrase?

I am
> particularly interested in the Matthew example. Following the way
1 Peter
> translates it, the phrase in Matthew would seem to say, "the
in you
> darkness" --> "the darkness in you". Thus the verse would say,
"If then the
> light is the darkness in you" --> "If then the darkness
in you is light."
> But everybody translates this, "If then the light in
you is darkness."

What
> am I missing?

Thanks!



> --
__________________________

David E. Kiefer, Registrar
Fuller Theological
> Seminary
135 N Oakland Ave
Pasadena, CA 91182

dkiefer at fuller.edu
Phone
> 626-584-5409
Fax 626-584-5564

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>
> --
__________________________

David E. Kiefer, Registrar
Fuller
> Theological Seminary
135 N Oakland Ave
Pasadena, CA 91182
>
dkiefer at fuller.edu
Phone 626-584-5409
Fax 626-584-5564
>


-- 
to the praise of the glory of His grace,
Matthew Hauck

0920.111.204
http://matthauck.blogspot.com/



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