[B-Greek] Eph 2:2 and syntactic significance of TOU PNEUMATOS

Brian Abasciano bvabasciano at gmail.com
Tue Feb 13 10:38:52 EST 2007


I had noticed that, but when Wallace goes to apply that test, he presumably believes that one cannot use the word "of" before a personal noun when the noun preceding it is also personal, especially since he states this principle in his treatment of appositional genitives and in his specific treatment of Eph 2:2. Indeed, when he considers Eph 2:2, he asserts it is impossible for it to be a genitive of apposition because of this. It is this I question, though it does seem like a good rule of thumb. I tend to think that it is a genitive of apposition, and is so abnormally because of attraction to the preceding genitives (which could provide a reason for the genitive even apart from thinking of it as formally appositional). But there are obviously various other options too that have been suggested in the commentaries. But they don't fit the context as well in my opinion. But if Wallace is correct about two personal nouns not being able to be in epexegetical relationship, then that would rule out a formal genitive of apposition. That just seems overly strict to me. So I am wondering, is he correct on that point?

Thanks,

Brian Abasciano
  ----- Original Message ----- 
  From: George F Somsel 
  To: Brian Abasciano ; kgraham0938 at comcast.net 
  Cc: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org 
  Sent: Tuesday, February 13, 2007 9:43 AM
  Subject: Re: [B-Greek] Eph 2:2 and syntactic significance of TOU PNEUMATOS


  I think you're missing something in Wallace.  If you back up from where he lists Eph 2.2 and denies that it is a genitive of apposition you will see that he proposes a test to distinguish whether or not it is a genitive of apposition based upon HOW YOU WOULD TRANSLATE the passage.  he states


  2) Genitive of Apposition vs. Simple Apposition
  Both will fit the "which is" formula so another test needs to be used to distinguish the two. If the word "of" can be used before the genitive in question, then it is a genitive of apposition. If it cannot, then it is simple apposition related to another genitive. (Keep in mind that the only time there could be any confusion is when both head noun and genitive noun are in the same case, but this does occur frequently.)

  Daniel B. Wallace. (1999; 2002). Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics - Exegetical Syntax of the New Testament (98). Zondervan Publishing House and Galaxie Software.

   
  george
  gfsomsel
  _________ 


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