[B-Greek] Luke 24: 49; Acts 2: 33; Acts 2: 38

Kevin Riley klriley at alphalink.com.au
Thu Feb 22 20:07:37 EST 2007


Masculine and feminine are traditional terms for grammatical categories. 
They do not necessarily have any real connection to actual biological gender
  If you look just at European languages you will find that words referring
to females can be feminine, masculine or neuter.  The same with words
referring to males.  "Child" is often neuter [Greek, German], but can be
masculine in some languages - but in either case refers to both boys and
girls.  The grammatical gender belongs to the word - you do not change it to
masculine to refer to a male, or feminine to refer to a female.  The word 
gift" is feminine, and will remain so no matter what the gift is.
 
There is no evidence that the different declensions are inherently or
originally 'gendered'.  Many languages have more than 3 declensions, and
there is not always any clear relationship with biological gender in any of
them.  Some languages have 20+ noun classes, and we simply don't have enough
'genders' for that many.  In Greek most words referring to males are
masculine, and most words referring to females are feminine, but it is
doubtful that is how 'gender' started out.  It is better to keep biological
and grammatical gender as separate ideas that overlap but are not
intrinsically related.  When a noun of one gender is referenced with a
pronoun of another, that may be significant in drawing attention to actual
gender, but not necessarily.
 
Kevin Riley
 
-------Original Message------- 
 
From: Larry K. Henry 
Date: 23/02/2007 11:49:01 AM 
 
Greetings, 
 
 
 
In reading Luke 24: 49; Acts 2: 33 and Acts 2: 38, I was struck with the 
Fact that "promise" and "gift" are noun feminine in form. I have been 
Struggling with the significance of this grammatical structure and how it 
Influences the interpretation of these passages. If the Spirit is the 
Object of the promise in Luke 24: 49 and Acts 2: 33, I would expect these 
Nouns to be masculine or neuter in gender if the Spirit is the intended 
"promise" or "gift." Since these nouns are feminine, is something other 
Than the Spirit the object of the promise? Could the object of the 
"promise" be the Abrahamic promise discussed so often in the book of Luke? 
 
 
 
The correct translation of gender nouns can determine how a translation 
Reads. Compare, for example Acts 2: 33 in KJV, NKJV, ASV, NASV with NIV or 
ISV, NLT, CEV. 
 
 
 
Feminine nouns are used in other passages we are already familiar with, so 
We should not be surprised at the presence of feminine nouns in scripture. 
For example, we are familiar with the feminine nouns in Matthew 16: 18, 
"...petra oikodomhsw mou thn ekklhsian...." Both "rock" and "church" are 
Noun feminine. 
 
 
 
Why do some cultures make some nouns to possess gender when they do not 
Specifically refer to a male or female, I.e. Gift, promise, rock, church 
(Luke 24: 24: Acts 2: 33, 38; Matthew 16: 16). Do these gender references 
Influence the interpretation of the passage where they are found? Could it 
Be that certain words are intended to reflect actions or duties normally 
Associated with specific genders, I.e. Women? For example, "rock" could be 
Seen as something born of the earth and "church" is intended to be the 
"bride" of Christ, both of which would be feminine actions. Are nouns made 
To be feminine when there is an implied action that is customarily feminine 
In nature, I.e. The birth of an idea; the birth of an action; the birth of a

Nation. This thinking would make "promise" an action "born" or "gift" an 
Action "born." Is this a correct thinking? 
 
 
 
In His Service, 
 
 
 
-Larry K. Henry 
 



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