[B-Greek] Acts 11.20 (was Acts 20:11 - Jesus as Lord?)

Harold Holmyard hholmyard at ont.com
Mon Jan 1 08:11:46 EST 2007


George F Somsel wrote:
> This could be translated "if you confess orally that Jesus is Lord" or "if you confess the Lord Jesus" with preference usually being given to the first.  The reason for this is most likely the fact that Caesar was proclaimed as lord so this functioned as a counter-claim.  I wouldn't therefore say that "Jesus as Lord" should be considered wrong, but the question is whether this is for the purpose of countering any imperial claim.  Probably it is not so "the Lord Jesus" would most likely be preferable.  

HH: Thanks, George, for changing the thread name. As to the Greek phrase 
represented in your last sentence above, this wording occurs thirty 
times in the NT (definite article, KURIOS, 'IHSOUS), and it almost 
always elsewhere means "the Lord Jesus." So I do find "the Lord Jesus" a 
more natural translation in Acts 11:20, though I grant both your 
argument about a rival confession to Caesar's and Carl's argument about 
Jesus being potentially in apposition. It seems that hO KURIOS 'IHSOUS 
(cf. 1 Cor 11:23) functioned as a title and proper name. It is unusual 
because of the article, which I believe strengthens the idea of 
divinity. People meant that he was the only Lord. If we said, "Lord 
Fauntleroy," we would not think of the two words in apposition. We could 
also say "the Earl of Dorincourt. " If we said "the Earl of Dorincourt 
Fauntleroy," we would probably have apposition. But normally titles do 
not have one holder forever, and that is what makes Jesus' name somewhat 
unique with a title. So he can be "the Lord Jesus," with the idea being 
not so much apposition as titular proper name.

Yours,
Harold Holmyard




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