[B-Greek] Luke 1:2, John 1:1 LOGOS, word, Word

Stephen Baldwin stbaldwi at hotmail.com
Thu Jan 4 15:13:39 EST 2007


Hello George, everyone:
Thanks for your reply George. I wouldn't argue about context but talk of 
witnesses and servants TOU LOGOU aroused the curiosity (I was nonetheless 
sceptical of a connection between Luke and John). According to BAG[D] and 
Kittel, they would imply that hO LOGOS in the context of Luke 1:2 [and 
others] is a shorthand for eg hO LOGOS TOU THEOU i.e. the gospel [about 
Jesus]. Interestingly, I Howard Marshall's commentary on Luke quotes a 
french source implying a link between Lk1:2 and the early verses of 1Jn1 
(hypostasis?)

Rgds
Steve

stephen baldwin
stbaldwi at hotmail.com



>From: George F Somsel <gfsomsel at yahoo.com>
>To: Stephen Baldwin <stbaldwi at hotmail.com>, b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
>Subject: Re: [B-Greek] Luke 1:2, John 1:1 LOGOS, word, Word
>Date: Wed, 3 Jan 2007 12:23:52 -0800 (PST)
>
>EPEIDHPER POLLOI EPEXEIRHSAN ANATACASQAI DIHGHSIN PERI TWN PEPLHRFORHMENWN 
>EN hHMIN PRAGMATWN 2  KAQWS PAREDOSAN hHMIN hOI AP' ARXHS AUTOPTAI KAI 
>hUPHXHQHS LOGWN THN ASFALEIAN.
>
>I can see that taken all by itself the use of LOGOS in Lk 1.2 might cause 
>you to think of Jn 1.2.  There is a principle, however, that you can't take 
>something out of its context.  Even in Lk 1.2 the word PAREDOSAN might give 
>you reason to believe that the author is not thinking of the person who is 
>called hO LOGOS in John but rather of a word, a statement, an account.  
>When you add to that the statement in Lk 1.1 that many have written a 
>DIHGHSIN, i.e. an account then that rather seals the matter.
>
>george
>gfsomsel
>_________
>
>
>
>----- Original Message ----
>From: Stephen Baldwin <stbaldwi at hotmail.com>
>To: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
>Sent: Wednesday, January 3, 2007 3:07:05 PM
>Subject: [B-Greek] Luke 1:2, John 1:1 LOGOS, word, Word
>
>
>Ladies and Gentlemen:
>This may be off-topic so my apologies in advance --
>But I was curious to see in Lk1:2 a reference TOU LOGOU and looked it up in
>the NIV and NASB to see it translated "word". In Jn1:1 of course O LOGOS is
>capitalised the "Word" with the obvious connotations.
>So I am curious to know whether there is anything in the greek language
>context of Luke that gives us clues as to the Lucan word referring to the
>message ("word") rather than the Word a la John referring to the person?
>AP ARXHS AUTOPTAI KAI UPHRETAI GENOMENOI TOU LOGOU sounds to me like the
>LOGOS is a person rather than a word (=message?) or have I missed 
>something?
>
>Any on-topic insights appreciated!
>
>Steve
>
>Stephen Baldwin
>stbaldwi at hotmail.com
>
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