[B-Greek] Luke 2:36

Tory Thorpe torythrp at yahoo.com
Thu Jan 4 20:24:59 EST 2007


The Mishnah was cited as evidence of how the Jewish
people in the Second Temple period understood and used
terms in their own language, since it was suggested
that 'btwlh' means virgo intacta. It does not
necessarily mean that; and I would not have dared to
quote so much of TWOT, but thank you! 

What I have been asking is whether it is possible a
particular clause in Lk 2:36 has adverbial
significance. So far, four list members have conceded
that it could depending on how one interprets the
usage of PARQENIAS in the relevant passage. Other
responses seem concerned about defending a
hermeneutic.

Tory Thorpe



--- "Bryant J. Williams III" <bjwvmw at com-pair.net>
wrote:

> Dear Albert,
> 
> It appears that Tony is trying to do that, but I
> could be wrong (he is
> quoting from the Mishnah).
> I sent the entire article
> from TWOT along with
> comments from the articles from BDAG. I would think
> that what is also
> happening that you so eloquently stated in your
> reply is that since the
> Koine Greek word is PARQENIA, and is used to
> translate Bethulah in the LXX,
> then it follows that it has the same meaning. I
> think that is the wrong way
> to go about it. There are some overlaps from
> checking TWOT, TDOT, TDNT,
> NIDNTT, BDAG, HALOT, etc., but there is enough
> differences to suggest that
> there is not a complete word-to-word differences.
> 
> I suspect that since Bethulah and Almah are
> translated by PARQENIA and
> PARQENOS that it would be wise to allow the context
> to indicate the meaning.
> 
> Rev. Bryant J. Williams III




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