[B-Greek] Luke 1:2, John 1:1 LOGOS, word, Word
George F Somsel
gfsomsel at yahoo.com
Fri Jan 5 12:27:17 EST 2007
I think "cites" would be a better term to use rather than "quotes." The passage is
(2) Luke now provides the basis (KAQWS, ‘according as’; Lk. 17x; Mt. 3x; Mk. 8x) for the reliability of the information on which the narrative about Jesus rests. It has been ‘handed down’ as tradition (παραδίδωμι; the use of the Classical second aorist form, παρέδοσαν, instead of the more common first aorist, PAREDWKAN, adds to the literary refinement of the sentence). The verb is a technical term for the handing down of material, whether orally or in writing, as authoritative teaching (Mk. 7:13; Acts 6:14; 1 Cor. 11:2, 23; 15:3; 2 Pet. 2:21; Jude 1:3; F. Büchsel, TDNT II, 169-173; O. Cullmann, The Early Church, 1956, 59-99; B. Gerhardsson, Memory and Manuscript, Uppsala, 1961; K. Wegenast, Das Verständnis der Tradition bei Paulus und in den Deuteropaulinen, Neukirchen, 1962). Those who handed this tradition down had been acquainted with the facts from the beginning of the ministry of Jesus (cf. Acts 1:22; 10:37). They were
‘eyewitnesses’ (αὐτόπτης**) who could not but speak of what they had seen and heard (Acts 4:20). They thus became ‘servants of the word’, a striking phrase conveying the thought of the centrality of the gospel message and of the way in which men are its servants; the use of ὑπηρέτης (4:20*; cf. Acts 26:16; 1 Cor. 4:1; ἡ διακονία τοῦ λόγου, Acts 6:4) emphasises that they ‘were not propagandists for their own views of what happened with Jesus but had unreservedly put their persons and work in the service of Jesus’ cause’ (K. H. Rengstorf, TDNT VIII, 543; cf. 530-544). λόγος thus signifies the Christian message, unchanging in its central emphasis, but variable in its form and detailed exposition; here the record of the acts and teaching of Jesus is meant (cf. Acts 10:36-43), but Luke also uses the word for Jesus’ own message (5:1; 8:11-21; 11:28). A. Feuillet suggests that ‘word’ is almost
hypostatized here so that it can be seen and that the usage here is related to that in 1 Jn. 1:1f. (‘ “Témoins oculaires et serviteurs de la parole” (Lc i 2b)’, Nov.T 15, 1973, 241-259). The syntax demands that the eyewitnesses and servants are one group of people (G. Kittel, TDNT IV, 115; W. Michaelis, TDNT V, 348). They are to be identified with the apostles, although not exclusively with the Twelve (pace Schürmann, I, 9). Since Luke distinguishes himself and his contemporaries from them, it follows that the content of their testimony was primarily the story of Jesus rather than of the early church, and also that Luke distinguishes between the writers of the Gospels and the apostolic eyewitnesses on whose testimony they were dependent.
Marshall, I. H. (1978). The Gospel of Luke : A commentary on the Greek text. Includes indexes. The New international Greek testament commentary (41). Exeter [Eng.: Paternoster Press.
It would not appear, however that he adopts Feuillet's suggestion unless he suggests something different from what I would assume he suggests from what Marshall has stated.
george
gfsomsel
_________
----- Original Message ----
From: Stephen Baldwin <stbaldwi at hotmail.com>
To: gfsomsel at yahoo.com; b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
Sent: Thursday, January 4, 2007 3:13:39 PM
Subject: Re: [B-Greek] Luke 1:2, John 1:1 LOGOS, word, Word
Hello George, everyone:
Thanks for your reply George. I wouldn't argue about context but talk of
witnesses and servants TOU LOGOU aroused the curiosity (I was nonetheless
sceptical of a connection between Luke and John). According to BAG[D] and
Kittel, they would imply that hO LOGOS in the context of Luke 1:2 [and
others] is a shorthand for eg hO LOGOS TOU THEOU i.e. the gospel [about
Jesus]. Interestingly, I Howard Marshall's commentary on Luke quotes a
french source implying a link between Lk1:2 and the early verses of 1Jn1
(hypostasis?)
Rgds
Steve
stephen baldwin
stbaldwi at hotmail.com
>From: George F Somsel <gfsomsel at yahoo.com>
>To: Stephen Baldwin <stbaldwi at hotmail.com>, b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
>Subject: Re: [B-Greek] Luke 1:2, John 1:1 LOGOS, word, Word
>Date: Wed, 3 Jan 2007 12:23:52 -0800 (PST)
>
>EPEIDHPER POLLOI EPEXEIRHSAN ANATACASQAI DIHGHSIN PERI TWN PEPLHRFORHMENWN
>EN hHMIN PRAGMATWN 2 KAQWS PAREDOSAN hHMIN hOI AP' ARXHS AUTOPTAI KAI
>hUPHXHQHS LOGWN THN ASFALEIAN.
>
>I can see that taken all by itself the use of LOGOS in Lk 1.2 might cause
>you to think of Jn 1.2. There is a principle, however, that you can't take
>something out of its context. Even in Lk 1.2 the word PAREDOSAN might give
>you reason to believe that the author is not thinking of the person who is
>called hO LOGOS in John but rather of a word, a statement, an account.
>When you add to that the statement in Lk 1.1 that many have written a
>DIHGHSIN, i.e. an account then that rather seals the matter.
>
>george
>gfsomsel
>_________
>
>
>
>----- Original Message ----
>From: Stephen Baldwin <stbaldwi at hotmail.com>
>To: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
>Sent: Wednesday, January 3, 2007 3:07:05 PM
>Subject: [B-Greek] Luke 1:2, John 1:1 LOGOS, word, Word
>
>
>Ladies and Gentlemen:
>This may be off-topic so my apologies in advance --
>But I was curious to see in Lk1:2 a reference TOU LOGOU and looked it up in
>the NIV and NASB to see it translated "word". In Jn1:1 of course O LOGOS is
>capitalised the "Word" with the obvious connotations.
>So I am curious to know whether there is anything in the greek language
>context of Luke that gives us clues as to the Lucan word referring to the
>message ("word") rather than the Word a la John referring to the person?
>AP ARXHS AUTOPTAI KAI UPHRETAI GENOMENOI TOU LOGOU sounds to me like the
>LOGOS is a person rather than a word (=message?) or have I missed
>something?
>
>Any on-topic insights appreciated!
>
>Steve
>
>Stephen Baldwin
>stbaldwi at hotmail.com
>
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