[B-Greek] Matthew 19:11
Harold Holmyard
hholmyard at ont.com
Tue Jan 9 16:59:28 EST 2007
Robert Dee wrote:
> Any thoughts on translating the last word (a verb) in Matthew 19:11, "DEDOTAI"? (3rd Pers. Pass. Perf. Ind)
> The entire last phrase is "ALL OIS DEDOTAI" ("but to whom it has been given")
>
> A good number of translations read (literally): "has been given" (or "it is given" or similar)
> (KJV, ALT, NASB, Darby, many others)
>
> A few read: "have the gift" (or similar)
> (CEV, Phillips, Moffat, etc)
>
> Is the last phrase considered an idiom by some? By itself, "have the gift" seems to
> emphasize the current possession of "the gift" (a noun), by the owner of it. Or does
> this illustrate the difference between 'literal' and 'thought equivalence'
HH: I think it is the latter, perhaps based on the fear that the literal
translation might be confusing to some. Clearly, the looser translation
does reflect thinking of the time, as Paul's words show:
1Cor. 7:7 For I would that all men were even as I myself. But every man
hath his proper gift of God, one after this manner, and another after that.
HH: People have a gift either to be single, or to be married. To me the
inference would be that the ones given to receive the saying would be
the ones given the gift to be single. People receive the saying in the
sense of being able to live it out.
Yours,
Harold Holmyard
> translation?
>
> Thank you in advance
> Robert J Dee
> Walthourville, Ga USA
> rdee at coastalnow.net
>
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