[B-Greek] Jn 17:3 Gk syntax

Oun Kwon kwonbbl at gmail.com
Sat Jan 13 18:25:23 EST 2007


On 1/13/07, Anthony Buzzard <anthonybuzzard at mindspring.com> wrote:
> Oun, thanks. The word "even" seems to put Jesus
> Christ in apposition to the "only one who is
> truly God," but "and" keeps the two separate, the
> Messiah as separate from the Father.
> I don't think you insisted on this, but you had put "even" as an alternative?
> Anthony Buzzard
>
>


Actually I wanted to remove any ambiguity about two persons here,
despite G-Jn saying Logos being what God is (Jn 1:1c), since the
context is clear.  However, as I go through understanding of this
verse, it may be found not helpful; I better shift gear back to
normal.

My problem with this verse started on 'how Life can be Knowledge'.  I
need some solution on each word in the verse
(1) hAUTH whether it refers to the preceding verse or to the following
hINA clause,
(2) nuance of 'ESTIN' (as Carl explained),
(3) hINA, whether it is for purpose (in order that), for result
(so-that), or simply as statement of fact,
(4) what is 'knowledge' meant here (or rather 'to know').

I find a related posting on our list on May 30, 2006
Subject: Re: [B-Greek] 1Jn 5:3 AUTH ... hINA ...

FYI, the  following is quoting from two commentaries on my shelf.

James Montgomery Boice has 4 page-full on this verse (pp. 1257-1262 in
vol. 4). The following is only a fraction of it.

"Here the operative term is knowledge. Knowledge of God is salvation.
By contrast, not knowing God and not wanting to is sin.

… What is this knowledge (of God)? It is a personal encounter with God
in which, because of His holiness, we become aware of our sin and
consequently of our deep personal need and then, by His grace, are
turned to Christ who is our Savior. This knowledge occurs only where
God's Holy Spirit is at work beforehand to make it possible, and it
always changes us, issuing in a heart response to God and true
devotion.  This is involved even in Christ's brief statement, for He
stresses that the knowledge of which He is speaking is knowledge of
the true God and of Himself as Savior."

He goes on much more ('what this knowledge is'), and worthy of reading through.

Keener  has one paragraph pertaining to this verse (p. 1055  in vol. 2)

"Although the relation between knowledge of God and eternal life
(17:3; cf. 1Jn 5:20) makes passable sense in Hellenistic framework, it
also fits the covenantal use of "knowing God" in the biblical
tradition (Jer 31:34; Hos 2:20). Hellenistic Jewish wisdom had already
identified knowing (EPISTASQAI, EIDENAI) God and His power with
righteousness and immortality (Wis 15:3). More may hinge on the hINA
in 17:3; if one takes it in its most frequent (and classical) sense as
"in order that", knowing God would be the result of eternal life. This
could be taken as corresponding to the more radical second-century
Gnostic ideologies, such as Valentinianism, where knowledge "is not
only an instrument of salvation but itself the very form in which the
goal of salvation, i.e., ultimate perfection, is possessed." Such a
view might, however, still equate knowledge with eternal life, which
reading the grammatical construction in this manner would not.
Further, a grammatical argument based on the classical force of hINA
would be misleading; this construction in 17:3 may simply represent a
Semitism or, more likely, an example of the broadened use of
conjunctions in Koine. In this case it means "that" (e.g., 4:34;
6:29), which is how translators usually take it. Knowing God includes
embracing his revelation in Christ, sharing His 'things' (16:23-15;
17:14, 17), particularly an intimate relationship of love with Him
(17:25-26)."

Keener covers some of my concern about 'knowledge', but it is not
clear whether the traditional translation makes clear (grammatically
speaking) about knowledge vis-a-vis gnosticism.

Confusedly yours,

Oun.



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