[B-Greek] A Question for B-Greek John 20:26 "After eight days"
Carl W. Conrad
cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
Mon Jan 15 09:25:19 EST 2007
I've responded to the following question put to me off-list, but the
original sender, who is not a list-member, would evidently like more
feedback; others might wish to respond. If so, please reply to
TALMIDIM at aol.com off-list or else "reply all."
On Jan 15, 2007, at 8:50 AM, (M. Basner) TALMIDIM at aol.com wrote:
> Sir:
>
> In reading John 20:26, regarding the phrase "after eight
> days" , what is the beginning point of this counting?
>
> TR: KAI MEQ' hHMERAS OKTW PALIN HSAN ESW hOI MAQHTAI AUTOU KAI
> QWMAS MET' AUTWN. ERCETAI hO IHSOUS TWN QURWN KEKLEISMENWN KAI ESTH
> EIS TO MESON KAI EIPEN, 'EIRHNH hUMIN.'
>
> Since Sunday was noted as the "third day" since the crucifixion,
> does the Greek text allow, that the crucifixion is the beginning
> reference point for the "eight days" rather than the day of Jesus'
> resurrection and his appearance to the apostles?
>
> I know the latter is the traditional view, but could the Greek
> text allow for a different interpretation?
This is standard ancient "inclusive reckoning" whereby the day of
reference is the first item in the count: Friday = day 1, Saturday =
day 2, Sunday = day 3. So META hHMERAS OKTW means "eight days" (one
week) following (and including) the day of reference. This is still
common practice in some countries: I regularly encountered in Germany
the phrase "heute in acht Tagen" -- i.e. "eight days from today"
meaning "a week from today."
Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Retired)
1989 Grindstaff Road/Burnsville, NC 28714/(828) 675-4243
cwconrad2 at mac.com
WWW: http://www.ioa.com/~cwconrad/
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