[B-Greek] A Question for B-Greek John 20:26 "After eight days"

Carl W. Conrad cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
Mon Jan 15 09:25:19 EST 2007


I've responded to the following question put to me off-list, but the  
original sender, who is not a list-member,  would evidently like more  
feedback; others might wish to respond. If so, please reply to
TALMIDIM at aol.com off-list or else "reply all."

On Jan 15, 2007, at 8:50 AM, (M. Basner) TALMIDIM at aol.com wrote:

> Sir:
>
>    In reading John 20:26, regarding  the phrase "after eight  
> days" , what is the beginning point of this counting?
>
> TR: KAI MEQ' hHMERAS OKTW PALIN HSAN ESW hOI MAQHTAI AUTOU KAI  
> QWMAS MET' AUTWN. ERCETAI hO IHSOUS TWN QURWN KEKLEISMENWN KAI ESTH  
> EIS TO MESON KAI EIPEN, 'EIRHNH hUMIN.'
>
>    Since Sunday was noted as the "third day" since the crucifixion,  
> does the Greek text allow,  that the crucifixion is the beginning  
> reference point for the "eight days" rather than the day of Jesus'  
> resurrection and his appearance to the apostles?
>
>    I know the latter is the traditional view,  but could the Greek  
> text allow for a different interpretation?

This is standard ancient "inclusive reckoning" whereby the day of  
reference is the first item in the count: Friday = day 1, Saturday =  
day 2, Sunday = day 3. So META hHMERAS OKTW means "eight days" (one  
week) following (and including) the day of reference. This is still  
common practice in some countries: I regularly encountered in Germany  
the phrase "heute in acht Tagen" -- i.e. "eight days from today"  
meaning "a week from today."


Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Retired)
1989 Grindstaff Road/Burnsville, NC 28714/(828) 675-4243
cwconrad2 at mac.com
WWW: http://www.ioa.com/~cwconrad/





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