[B-Greek] The present tense in Hebrews 6:4-6

Carl Unger carlunger at gmail.com
Sun Jan 21 22:47:01 EST 2007


Thank you for your responses.
>From reading them, the conclusion here seems to be that it can either be
temporal or
causal depending on the context.
There was an argument I found that it is actually causal which I will quote:
**
*"The two present participles in v. 6 are causal, modifying the predicate
and answering the question
 why is it "impossible." See the discussion in Attridge, Hebrews, p"*

Once again, I'm not a big shot at this so I'm not sure if the argument holds
any water,
so I'd like to know comments on that one.

If causal, does that 100% rule out *anastaurountas* and *paradeigmatidzontas
*being a present ongoing action?

I pretty much have little clue or understanding of how this all works, so
any further
understanding would be appreciated.

Thank you.



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