[B-Greek] LABETE in John 20:22

David E. Kiefer, Registrar dkiefer at fuller.edu
Tue Jan 23 23:47:06 EST 2007


I think it is a pronouncement. Of course the FORM is active, but the 
there is a middle or passive meaning possible within the semantic range 
of the word. Wallace simply didn't go far enough in explaining this use 
of the imperative as a pronouncement. The passive sense can (and usually 
is) communicated by the form of the word, but a few words have the 
passive sense as a component of their meaning instead.

Bert de Haan wrote:
>
>
>
> John 20:22 reads:
> KAI TOUTO EIPWN ENEFUSHSEN KAI LEGEI AUTOIS, LABETE  PNEUMA hAION.
>
>
> I am trying to understand the force of the imperative LABETE.
> Jesus breathing on them I would think is a sign of them receiving the 
> Holy Spirit yet he commands them to receive the Holy Spirit.
> Is the imperative âEURoeLABETEâEUR? much more than a pronouncement?
> Wallace in GGBB on page 492 has a section on pronouncement imperatives.
> He says:
>  âEURoeOccasionally an imperative in the passive voice is the 
> equivalent of a statement that is fulfilled at the moment of speaking. 
> Such usage is reserved for passives that cannot be fulfilled by the 
> recipient of the imperative.  On the surface, it looks like a command, 
> but its nature is such that it cannot be obeyed by the recipient and 
> yet it comes true at the moment it is uttered.âEUR?
> An example he gives is KAQARISQHTI in Mark 1:41.  âEURoeBe cleansed.âEUR?
>
> The way I understand verse 22, all this seems to fit except the 
> passive voice of the verb.
> LAMBANW in the passive voice does not make sense here but 
> âEURoereceiveâEUR? can have a bit of a passive sense compared to the 
> active  âEURoetake.âEUR?
> Is it safe to say that this is a pronouncement?
> Thank you.
> Bert de Haan.
>
>
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David E. Kiefer, Registrar
Fuller Theological Seminary
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