[B-Greek] The present tense in Hebrews 6:4-6
Carl Unger
carlunger at gmail.com
Wed Jan 24 09:27:00 EST 2007
No more answers?
No more on the 2 present participles?
No more on the overall translation?
Let me say that I am not effected personally by this passage meaning
I'm not worried that I have fallen away and lost my salvation etc, I
don't want anyone to soften down their arguments because they think I
might get hurt by an argument which might suggest the people in view
will not be saved.
Thank you.
On 1/22/07, Carl Unger <carlunger at gmail.com> wrote:
> Thank you for your responses.
> From reading them, the conclusion here seems to be that it can either be
> temporal or
> causal depending on the context.
> There was an argument I found that it is actually causal which I will quote:
> **
> *"The two present participles in v. 6 are causal, modifying the predicate
> and answering the question
> why is it "impossible." See the discussion in Attridge, Hebrews, p"*
>
> Once again, I'm not a big shot at this so I'm not sure if the argument holds
> any water,
> so I'd like to know comments on that one.
>
> If causal, does that 100% rule out *anastaurountas* and *paradeigmatidzontas
> *being a present ongoing action?
>
> I pretty much have little clue or understanding of how this all works, so
> any further
> understanding would be appreciated.
>
> Thank you.
>
>
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