[B-Greek] LABETE in John 20:22
Bert de Haan
b_dehaan at sympatico.ca
Wed Jan 24 19:57:38 EST 2007
Thanks to all those who replied (on or off list.)
I understand that LABETE is an active form but what I was getting at is
exactly what David Kiefer explained better than I did. I just didn't know
if I was making a valid assumption that a passive sense even if the form is
active would have the same effect as the passive imperative in Mark 1:41.
Thank you.
>Date: Tue, 23 Jan 2007 20:47:06 -0800
>From: "David E. Kiefer, Registrar" <dkiefer at fuller.edu>
>Subject: Re: [B-Greek] LABETE in John 20:22
>To: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
>Message-ID: <45B6E4CA.10900 at fuller.edu>
>Content-Type: text/plain; charset=ISO-8859-1; format=flowed
>
>I think it is a pronouncement. Of course the FORM is active, but the
>there is a middle or passive meaning possible within the semantic range
>of the word. Wallace simply didn't go far enough in explaining this use
>of the imperative as a pronouncement. The passive sense can (and usually
>is) communicated by the form of the word, but a few words have the
>passive sense as a component of their meaning instead.
>
>Bert de Haan wrote:
> >
> >
> >
> > John 20:22 reads:
> > KAI TOUTO EIPWN ENEFUSHSEN KAI LEGEI AUTOIS, LABETE PNEUMA hAION.
> >
> >
> > I am trying to understand the force of the imperative LABETE.
> > Jesus breathing on them I would think is a sign of them receiving the
> > Holy Spirit yet he commands them to receive the Holy Spirit.
> > Is the imperative ?EURoeLABETE?EUR? much more than a pronouncement?
> > Wallace in GGBB on page 492 has a section on pronouncement imperatives.
> > He says:
> > ?EURoeOccasionally an imperative in the passive voice is the
> > equivalent of a statement that is fulfilled at the moment of speaking.
> > Such usage is reserved for passives that cannot be fulfilled by the
> > recipient of the imperative. On the surface, it looks like a command,
> > but its nature is such that it cannot be obeyed by the recipient and
> > yet it comes true at the moment it is uttered.?EUR?
> > An example he gives is KAQARISQHTI in Mark 1:41. ?EURoeBe
>cleansed.?EUR?
> >
> > The way I understand verse 22, all this seems to fit except the
> > passive voice of the verb.
> > LAMBANW in the passive voice does not make sense here but
> > ?EURoereceive?EUR? can have a bit of a passive sense compared to the
> > active ?EURoetake.?EUR?
> > Is it safe to say that this is a pronouncement?
> > Thank you.
> > Bert de Haan.
> >
> >
> > ------------------------------------------------------------------------
> >
> > ---
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> >
>
>--
>__________________________
>
>David E. Kiefer, Registrar
>Fuller Theological Seminary
>135 N Oakland Ave
>Pasadena, CA 91182
>
>dkiefer at fuller.edu
>Phone 626-584-5409
>Fax 626-584-5564
>
>
>
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