[B-Greek] Jam 1:13 APEIRASTOS 'unable to' or 'unable to be ~'
Iver Larsen
iver_larsen at sil.org
Thu Jul 5 16:52:50 EDT 2007
> For instances and discussion of them and what they reveal about first century
> "secular" understandings of the nature and aim of the action signified by
> PEIRAZW,
> have a look at my article on "testing" in _Dictionary of New Testament
> Background_,
> Craig Evans and Stan Porter, editors. (If you have no access to this volume,
> and you
> want me to send you a PDF of my entry, let me know off list).
I can accept that secular usage of a particular word can be somewhat different
from NT usage. Not totally different, but with a certain sense found in one
domain and not used in another domain. We find the same in modern languages,
where a number of words have a somewhat different meaning in a Biblical context
compared to a secular context.
>> Yes, you are correct in assuming that I expect the Devil to be hostile to
>> Jesus
>> with bad intent. You are entitled to have different assumptions about the
>> Devil.
>
> Thank you. But can you please tell me why I should even consider that you
> assumption
> is a valid one? On what is it based?
I am afraid that would take us far beyond the parameters of this list, so I
shall refrain.
Iver Larsen
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