[B-Greek] Jam 1:13 APEIRASTOS 'unable to' or 'unable to be ~'

Iver Larsen iver_larsen at sil.org
Thu Jul 5 16:52:50 EDT 2007


> For instances and discussion of them and what they reveal about first century
> "secular" understandings of the nature and aim of the action signified by 
> PEIRAZW,
> have a look at my article on "testing" in _Dictionary of New Testament 
> Background_,
> Craig Evans and Stan Porter, editors.  (If you have no access to this volume, 
> and you
> want me to send you a PDF of my entry, let me know off list).

I can accept that secular usage of a particular word can be somewhat different 
from NT usage. Not totally different, but with a certain sense found in one 
domain and not used in another domain. We find the same in modern languages, 
where a number of words have a somewhat different meaning in a Biblical context 
compared to a secular context.

>> Yes, you are correct in assuming that I expect the Devil to be hostile to 
>> Jesus
>> with bad intent. You are entitled to have different assumptions about the 
>> Devil.
>
> Thank you.  But can you please tell me why I should even consider that you 
> assumption
> is a valid one?  On what is it based?

I am afraid that would take us far beyond the parameters of this list, so I 
shall refrain.

Iver Larsen 




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