[B-Greek] Significance of Pluperfects In John 6:17
Charlie
c.arnoldjr at worldnet.att.net
Tue Jul 24 20:07:26 EDT 2007
Abbott's "Johannine Grammar" (1906) states that the pluperfect is "perhaps
more frequent in John thatn in any of the Synoptists, and his use of it shew
a disposition to represent distinctions not capable of being represented in
Hebrew....It often expresses a parenthesis, or a statement out of its
chronological place, of the nature of an after-though" Abbott then provides
a number of examples such as 4.8 "for his disciples [I should have said
before] had gone away".
Charles Arnold, Ph.D.
----- Original Message -----
From: "Douglas M. Wood" <dougwood at gracebible.ws>
To: <b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Tuesday, July 24, 2007 5:57 PM
Subject: [B-Greek] Significance of Pluperfects In John 6:17
> Dear Text Experts:
>
> I am a pastor preaching this coming Sunday.
>
> In chewing on and investigating the meaning of
>
> my text (John 6:15-21; Jesus Walks On The Sea),
>
> I discovered your website. I trust that you are
>
> most interested in discerning the meaning that
>
> the Holy Spirit intended, through His on-purpose
>
> choice of Greek words.
>
>
>
> There are 2 pluperfects in John 6:17. Since
>
> there are only 22 pluperfects in the entire NT, I
>
> am thinking that 2 in one spot is very significant.
>
>
>
> Most English translations render the verse
>
> as a report on the time and status -- for example,
>
> "And it was already dark, and Jesus had not come
>
> to them" (NKJV). I find such a translation superfluous
>
> given the time report in v. 16.
>
>
>
> I am theorizing that the pluperfects in this
>
> verse intone something more significant --
>
> and cosmically so, related to the Light
>
> coming into the Darkness theme in this, the
>
> Gospel of John.
>
>
>
> What say you about the pluperfects here ?
>
> Are there any articles in your archives that you
>
> can point me to ? Do you know of any
>
> commentaries that attempt to fathom the significance
>
> of the pluperfects (so far, I have only found the
>
> William Hendriksen volume on John in the New
>
> Testament Commentary by Baker Book House
>
> [1953] that calls any attention at all to the pluperfects;
>
> but, I find his interpretation of the meaning not
>
> fully satisfying) ?
>
>
>
> Thank you for any assistance that you can be.
>
>
>
> In Christ,
>
> Doug Wood
>
>
>
> ---
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