[B-Greek] Luke 4:7
Iver Larsen
iver_larsen at sil.org
Wed Jun 13 03:20:40 EDT 2007
----- Original Message -----
From: "Carl W. Conrad" <cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu>
On Jun 12, 2007, at 3:12 PM, Elizabeth Kline wrote:
> Carl,
>
> I checked S.H. Levinsohn (Discourse Features NTG, pp.16-17,37-67) and
> he affirms that the initial slot may be used for focus. In his
> glossary focus is defined as that part of an utterance which makes
> the most important change in the hearer's mental representation. But
> the final slot may also be used for focus.
Iver: That is one of the questionable claims in Levinsohn's analysis, and based on my own research
and that of others I am pretty sure it is mistaken. I have studied all the references Levinsohn
claims to exhibit final focus, and in each case an alternative and better analysis is possible. The
final slot can be used for focus in English, but not in Greek, because of the extremely flexible
word order in Greek as compared to English. If both initial and final order could be used for focus
in Greek, the system would break down, because the writer would not be able to decide the word order
choice and the reader would be confused in trying to analyze the text.
> LUKE 4:7 SU OUN EAN PROSKUNHSHiS ENWPION EMOU, ESTAI SOU PASA.
>
> I would say that SU is LUKE 4:7 while acquiring some added attention
> in the initial slot, is not the focus of the utterance. I place the
> focus of the utterance at the end, ESTAI SOU PASA. There is some
> confusion at this point in my mind about clause level focus and
> utterance focus. SU might be in focus for the protasis but not for
> the utterance.
Carl: .... I'm glad that Elizabeth has called attention to ESTAI SOU PASA in
this utterance of Satan; here's another instance where I have to say
that, although the entire clause is powerful, the concluding PASA is
especially emphatic -- in FINAL position. And wouldn't we have to
say that PASA here is predicative (the implicit subject being
EXOUSIA)? Something like, "It (the authority) will be yours --
entirely."
Iver: Why is PASA considered to be emphatic? I can see no pragmatic or grammatical reason for it to
be. Greek word order emphasis is much simpler. In the clause ESTAI SOU PASA, the major focus is on
ESTAI, because it appears first, and the least focus is on PASA. ESTAI in first position does not
mean just "it/he will be", but rather "it/he will indeed be". Focus is on the fact that it will
indeed happen, it will definitely come into existence. This is the focus of the promise by Satan in
this clause.
The word PAS has a certain inherent lexical focus and is always placed to the left when there is
emphasis on it.
Let us look at the context:
4:5 EDEIXEN AUTWi PASAS TAS BASILEIAS - he showed him ALL the kingdoms
Within the noun phrase, there is emphasis on PASAS. (Not within the clause).
4:6 SOI DWSW THN EXOUSIAN TAUTHN hAPASAN - I will give YOU all this AUTHORITY
Within the noun phrase functioning as object the focus is on the authority over all the
aforementioned kingdoms. There is no focus on either TAUTHN nor hAPASAN, since both are simple back
references to already known information (authority over all the mentioned kingdoms). At the clause
level there is focus on SOI by way of its fronted position.
4:7 SU OUN EAN PROSKUNHSHiS ENWPION EMOU, ESTAI SOU PASA
So, if YOU bow down in obeisance to me, all (that aforementioned authority) will indeed be yours.
(PASA is attributive to the implicit EXOUSIA hAUTH, but functioning substantively).
There is no need to have focus on PASA, since it is a back reference to THN EXOUSIAN TAUTHN hAPASAN.
PAS/hAPAS occurs three times in this text. Only the first instance is emphatic, the rest are back
references. As the story develops, the writer puts different emphases on different aspects by using
relative fronting of grammatical elements within their scope (phrase or clause).
Iver Larsen
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