[B-Greek] Luke 5:1 Infinitive of purpose introduced by KAI
Carl W. Conrad
cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
Thu Jun 28 12:25:43 EDT 2007
On Jun 28, 2007, at 11:34 AM, Webb wrote:
> Dear Carl,
>
>> On Jun 26, 2007, at 1:07 PM, Elizabeth Kline wrote:
>> The second infinitive clause KAI AKOUEIN TON LOGON TOU QEOU could be
>> understood as a statement of purpose and not a second argument for EN
>> TWi.
>
>>> The most lucid is Zerwick:1963 #455gamma who
>>> cites Lk5:1 as an example.
>
> Here is Zerwick's paragraph:
>
> 455. b) the "neutral" use of simple KAI for:
> ...
> GAMMA) "so that" final or consecutive, e.g. Mt 5:15 "they light a
> candle and
> set it...on a candlestick KAI it lights all" (Vulgate: "ut luceat")
Matt. 5:15 οὐδὲ καίουσιν λύχνον καὶ
τιθέασιν αὐτὸν ὑπὸ τὸν μόδιον
ἀλλ᾿ ἐπὶ τὴν λυχνίαν, καὶ λάμπει
πᾶσιν τοῖς ἐν τῇ οἰκίᾳ.
>
OUDE KAIOUSIN LUCNON KAI TIQEASIN AUTON hUPO TON MODION ALL' EPI THN
LUCNIAN, KAI LAMPEI PASIN TOIS EN THi OIKIAi.
This is clear enough, but it's not an infinitive; it's not ALL' EPI
THN LUCNIAN KAI LAMPEIN ...
> ; Lk 5:1;
That's the text in question.
> 24:26.
Luke 24:26 οὐχὶ ταῦτα ἔδει παθεῖν τὸν
χριστὸν καὶ εἰσελθεῖν εἰς τὴν
δόξαν αὐτοῦ;
>
OUCI TAUTA EDEI PAQEIN TON CRISTON KAI EISELQEIN EIS THN DOXAN AUTOU?
This comes closest to the construction in Lk 5:1, and it is Luke, but
I'm not quite convinced that there's any necessity to read this KAI
as "and for that reason" or "and therefore."
> --Mt 8:25 "and he began to see, and was cured KAI saw everything
> clearly" (Vulgate "ita ut clare videret");
Bad reference -- it's not Mt 8:25
> Lk 11:44;
Luke 11:44 Οὐαὶ ὑμῖν, ὅτι ἐστὲ ὡς τὰ
μνημεῖα τὰ ἄδηλα, καὶ οἱ ἄνθρωποι
[οἱ] περιπατοῦντες ἐπάνω οὐκ
οἴδασιν.
>
OUAI hUMIN, hOTI ESTE hWS TO MNHMEIA TA ADHLA, KAI hOI ANQRWPOI [hOI]
PERIPATOUNTES EPANW OUK OIDASIN.
Again, clear, but not an infinitive.
> Rom. 11:35.
Rom. 11:35 ἢ τίς προέδωκεν αὐτῷ, καὶ
ἀνταποδοθήσεται αὐτῷ;
H TIS PROEDWKEN AUTWi KAI ANTAPODOQHSETAI AUTWi?
Again clear, but not an infinitive.
> [end Zerwick quote, from p. 153 of Biblical Greek.]
>
> My feeling is that KAI appears to function so closely to how
> English "and"
> does in such situations that one could make the same comment about
> English
> "and": that it is used where the material behind it is clearly
> understood to
> be the result in relation to the material in front of it.
>
> "I gave the mirror a quick rub with my sleeve, AND it cleared right
> up."
>
> On the other hand, of all these examples, Rom. 11:35 seems to me the
> clearest one in which it would simply not sound quite right to use
> "and" in
> English.
OK, I can see "and then" or "and so" as implicit in the KAI
Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Retired)
1989 Grindstaff Road/Burnsville, NC 28714/(828) 675-4243
cwconrad2 at mac.com
WWW: http://www.ioa.com/~cwconrad/
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