[B-Greek] Luke 5:1 Infinitive of purpose introduced by KAI

Carl W. Conrad cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
Thu Jun 28 12:25:43 EDT 2007


On Jun 28, 2007, at 11:34 AM, Webb wrote:

> Dear Carl,
>
>> On Jun 26, 2007, at 1:07 PM, Elizabeth Kline wrote:
>> The second infinitive clause KAI AKOUEIN TON LOGON TOU QEOU could be
>> understood as a statement of purpose and not a second argument for EN
>> TWi.
>
>>> The most lucid is Zerwick:1963 #455gamma who
>>> cites Lk5:1 as an example.
>
> Here is Zerwick's paragraph:
>
> 455. b) the "neutral" use of simple KAI for:
> ...
> GAMMA) "so that" final or consecutive, e.g. Mt 5:15 "they light a  
> candle and
> set it...on a candlestick KAI it lights all" (Vulgate: "ut luceat")


Matt. 5:15 οὐδὲ καίουσιν λύχνον καὶ  
τιθέασιν αὐτὸν ὑπὸ τὸν μόδιον  
ἀλλ᾿ ἐπὶ τὴν λυχνίαν, καὶ λάμπει  
πᾶσιν τοῖς ἐν τῇ οἰκίᾳ.
>
OUDE KAIOUSIN LUCNON KAI TIQEASIN AUTON hUPO TON MODION ALL' EPI THN  
LUCNIAN, KAI LAMPEI PASIN TOIS EN THi OIKIAi.

This is clear enough, but it's not an infinitive; it's not ALL' EPI  
THN LUCNIAN KAI LAMPEIN ...

> ; Lk 5:1;

That's the text in question.

> 24:26.

Luke 24:26 οὐχὶ ταῦτα ἔδει παθεῖν τὸν  
χριστὸν καὶ εἰσελθεῖν εἰς τὴν  
δόξαν αὐτοῦ;
>
OUCI TAUTA EDEI PAQEIN TON CRISTON KAI EISELQEIN EIS THN DOXAN AUTOU?

This comes closest to the construction in Lk 5:1, and it is Luke, but  
I'm not quite convinced that there's any necessity to read this KAI  
as "and for that reason" or "and therefore."

> --Mt 8:25 "and he began to see, and was cured KAI saw everything
> clearly" (Vulgate "ita ut clare videret");

Bad reference -- it's not Mt 8:25

> Lk 11:44;

Luke 11:44 	Οὐαὶ ὑμῖν, ὅτι ἐστὲ ὡς τὰ  
μνημεῖα τὰ ἄδηλα, καὶ οἱ ἄνθρωποι  
[οἱ] περιπατοῦντες ἐπάνω οὐκ  
οἴδασιν.
>
OUAI hUMIN, hOTI ESTE hWS TO MNHMEIA TA ADHLA, KAI hOI ANQRWPOI [hOI]  
PERIPATOUNTES EPANW OUK OIDASIN.

Again, clear, but not an infinitive.

> Rom. 11:35.
Rom. 11:35 	ἢ τίς προέδωκεν αὐτῷ, καὶ  
ἀνταποδοθήσεται αὐτῷ;

H TIS PROEDWKEN AUTWi KAI ANTAPODOQHSETAI AUTWi?

Again clear, but not an infinitive.

> [end Zerwick quote, from p. 153 of Biblical Greek.]
>
> My feeling is that KAI appears to function so closely to how  
> English "and"
> does in such situations that one could make the same comment about  
> English
> "and": that it is used where the material behind it is clearly  
> understood to
> be the result in relation to the material in front of it.
>
> "I gave the mirror a quick rub with my sleeve, AND it cleared right  
> up."
>
> On the other hand, of all these examples, Rom. 11:35 seems to me the
> clearest one in which it would simply not sound quite right to use  
> "and" in
> English.

OK, I can see "and then" or "and so" as implicit in the KAI


Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Retired)
1989 Grindstaff Road/Burnsville, NC 28714/(828) 675-4243
cwconrad2 at mac.com
WWW: http://www.ioa.com/~cwconrad/





More information about the B-Greek mailing list