[B-Greek] The "vulgar imperative", such as KAQOU in James 2:3

George F Somsel gfsomsel at yahoo.com
Wed Mar 7 07:42:10 EST 2007


"Vulgar" has that significance in contemporary usage, but in reality denotes that which is common or general to society at large.  This is why Jerome's translation into Latin became known as the Vulgate.

 
george
gfsomsel
_________



----- Original Message ----
From: "shoes6 at juno.com" <shoes6 at juno.com>
To: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
Sent: Monday, March 5, 2007 10:26:22 PM
Subject: [B-Greek] The "vulgar imperative", such as KAQOU in James 2:3


CAIREIN,

The entry for KAQHMAI in my lexicon (Abbott-Smith, 1973) says that
KAQOU is a "vulgar imperative".  (By the way, KAQOU appears twice in
James 2:3, as the word translated "sit".)

The same lexicon entry also refers the reader interested in the "vulgar
imperative" to _Sources_of_N.T._Greek_ by H.A.A. Kennedy, 1895.

Anyway, with or without Kennedy, can someone shine a light on the
vulgar imperative?  I'm assuming, for starters, that "vulgar" here
means "the grammar used by the uneducated classes".

All help will be appreciated.

Ted Shoemaker

Art that can be explained isn't art.  
Art that has to be explained is worse.

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