[B-Greek] 1 John 3:3 - Antecedent of AUTW?
George F Somsel
gfsomsel at yahoo.com
Wed May 2 11:08:54 EDT 2007
Text
KAI PAS hO EXWN THN ELPIDA TAUTHN EP' AUTWi hAGNIZEI hEAUTON, KAQWS EKEINOS hAGNOS ESTIN
BDAG lists EPI here under #6 "Marker of basis for a state of being …" Of course, it is possible for BDAG to be wrong, but what would it signify if the EP' AUTWi were to refer to the believer? As Charlie stated, it seems rather unlikely that the author would be speaking of the believer hoping upon the basis of himself. The only what I could see EP' AUTWi as referring to the believer would be if it signified having hope within himself, but if that were the intension I think I would then expect EN AUTWi. I see no listing in BDAG or in L & N which might conceivably support the concept of having hope within himself being expressed by EP' AUTWi.
george
gfsomsel
Therefore, O faithful Christian, search for truth, hear truth,
learn truth, love truth, speak the truth, hold the truth,
defend the truth till death.
- Jan Hus
_________
----- Original Message ----
From: Charlie <c.arnoldjr at worldnet.att.net>
To: Pete Harwood <pete at pengefamilychurch.org>
Cc: B Greek <b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Wednesday, May 2, 2007 9:42:53 AM
Subject: Re: [B-Greek] 1 John 3:3 - Antecedent of AUTW?
I don't believe John is writing of having "hope" in ourselves. Rather, the
hope here refers to what is promised in the preceeding verse. And therefore
it, hope, must be EP AUTW , on Him - Christ. Because there are no hard and
fast rules here one must rely on context.
C. Arnold
----- Original Message -----
From: "Pete Harwood" <pete at pengefamilychurch.org>
To: "B-Greek" <b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Wednesday, May 02, 2007 7:40 AM
Subject: [B-Greek] 1 John 3:3 - Antecedent of AUTW?
>
> Hi all,
>
> Sorry if this is an oldie...
>
> The pronoun AUTW in 1 john 3:3: Does it refer
> to Christ? (As the NASB translates) Or the believer?
>
> In his TNTC Stott states it means Christ but seems
> to base this purely on theological grounds and the use
> of EPI in Rom 15:12 and 1 Tim 4:10 (But the latter is God!)
>
> What there any better grammatical/contextual grounds for making this
> decision?
>
> Any help appreciated!
>
> Pete.
>
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