[B-Greek] Ecclesiological questions
Carl W. Conrad
cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
Wed May 9 06:44:19 EDT 2007
Please do not bring up issues of ecclesiology and theology in this
forum; our focus is upon the Biblical Greek language and the Biblical
Greek text as such, not upon implications that are read into or out
of those texts.
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Carl W. Conrad
Co-Chair, B-Greek List
On May 9, 2007, at 1:06 AM, Kevin Riley wrote:
> It is not so much that they have the same meaning but that they
> have the
> same referents - i.e. The two words are used to refer to the same
> group of
> people doing the same work. I would see the two words as emphasising
> slightly different aspects of the group's work, but still referring
> to the
> general function of oversight of a Christian group. In later times
> the two
> definitely came to refer to different functions - or similar
> functions at
> different levels is perhaps the more correct way to put it. That
> is more
> the issue in Wesley's day - that a priest [presbuteros] did not
> then have
> the authority to ordain priests, only bishops [episcopoi] did.
>
> BTW John Wesley is probably not the best theologian to read too
> much of if
> you wish to remain an independent church - it is not a concept of
> which he
> would approve. Despite having to separate from the CoE, he remained
> committed to the idea of a catholic church. I'd give references,
> but it is
> a long time since I read his work, and it is definitely outside the
> area of
> BGreek.
>
> Kevin Riley
>
> -------Original Message-------
>
> From: udking at juno.com
> Date: 9/05/2007 1:31:23 PM
>
> I am a newbie in Bgreek. However, I have enjoyed the posts. My
> church is in
> the process of formulating an ecclesiology; having just left her
> mother
> denomination to remain an independent church. My superintendent is
> following
> John Wesley's train of thought; where the later justifies his
> ordination of
> priests against the wishes of the church leaders by stating that the
> presbyteros have the same function as the episcopes. I am not clear
> as to
> why he thinks this is case since both Greek words do not seem to
> have the
> same meaning, or do they?
> B. Jacobs
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