[B-Greek] Futuristic Presents in Matthew

Mitch Larramore mitchlarramore at yahoo.com
Thu May 10 17:54:01 EDT 2007


These are called Futuristic Presents, but I don't
understand what other Tense (or grammatical
construction) could have been used when the "after X
days" is factored into the equation.

26.2
OIDATE hOTI META DUO hHMERAS TO PASCA GINETAI, KAI hO
hUIOS TOU ANQRWPOU PARADIDOTAI EIS TO STAURWQHNAI

27.63
META TREIS hHMERAS EGEIROMAI

In both examples (from Intermediate NT Greek, by
Richard Young) there appears to be a NEED for the
Present Tense because of the prior statements of META
DUO hHMERAS or META TREIS hHMERAS. 

Using the first example, after two days, the Passover
is no longer future (and not past either), so what
other Tense could he have used? If this adverbial
phrase were omitted then I think his point is valid.
Dr. Young takes a linguistic approach to this grammar
but I really don't see justification for this
usage...at least not with these examples. Any
linguistic reasons for his conclusions?

Finally. What is the main difference(s) between a
'traditional grammar' approach and a 'linguistic' approach?

Mitch Larramore
Sugar Land, Texas


 
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