[B-Greek] Matthew 5:48

Charlie c.arnoldjr at worldnet.att.net
Mon May 28 18:09:54 EDT 2007


 Roger Hutchinson wrote on 5/28/07 5:36 p.m.


> Matthew 5:48 reads--
>
>
>
> ESESQE OUN hUMEIS TELEIOI hWS hO PATHR hUMWN hO OURANIOS TELEIOS ESTIN
>
>
>
> I was told that, "An examination of the Greek shows the tense of the
> verb to be future tense indicative. It is not imperative. 'Future tense,
> indicative' does not indicate a command. It may indicate a prediction or
> expectation, but not an imperative."
>
>
>
> Yet, the translation (at least in the KJV and NIV) gives the sense of a
> command.? Can the future indicative tense be used to state a command??
> Can this verse be read? as a command -- You shall (must) be perfect -- as
> opposed to just a simple future indicative -- You will be perfect?
>
>
>
> Roger Hutchinson
>
>


ESESQE is 2 pers. pl. fut. indic. and therefore a statement of fact - in
this case of a future fact and is not an imperitive. It should read then
"Therefore, you shall be perfect..."

C. Arnold




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