[B-Greek] logos of John 1--A person or a plan?

Jason Rankins jrankins at yahoo.com
Sat Nov 3 06:42:31 EDT 2007


Hello B-Greek participants,

This is my first submission here on B-Greek, and I have a question that has been asked of me that
I will relay here.  In John 1:1, the consensus translation of John 1:1 has been:

In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

Now, this translation assumes the ho logos to have an identity--to be a person.  My question is
this, is it grammatically compulsory to view the ho logos as a person?  Or is it more or less
legitimate to understand the ho logos as the divine word (i.e. the divine plan).  I have found no
Greek grammatical rule that would necessitate the ho logos be considered a person.  

Please, I would appreciate if only those with academic credentials respond to this post.  Not that
one cannot be adequately self educated in this regard, but how could I be sure.  Unfortunately,
degrees and credentials attest to ones legitimacy in the modern academic arena.  No offense
intended.

I thank you all in advance.




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