[B-Greek] logos of John 1--A person or a plan?
Jason Rankins
jrankins at yahoo.com
Sat Nov 3 06:42:31 EDT 2007
Hello B-Greek participants,
This is my first submission here on B-Greek, and I have a question that has been asked of me that
I will relay here. In John 1:1, the consensus translation of John 1:1 has been:
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
Now, this translation assumes the ho logos to have an identity--to be a person. My question is
this, is it grammatically compulsory to view the ho logos as a person? Or is it more or less
legitimate to understand the ho logos as the divine word (i.e. the divine plan). I have found no
Greek grammatical rule that would necessitate the ho logos be considered a person.
Please, I would appreciate if only those with academic credentials respond to this post. Not that
one cannot be adequately self educated in this regard, but how could I be sure. Unfortunately,
degrees and credentials attest to ones legitimacy in the modern academic arena. No offense
intended.
I thank you all in advance.
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