[B-Greek] Prep phrase and DA

Mitch Larramore mitchlarramore at yahoo.com
Wed Nov 21 21:22:27 EST 2007


Some prep phrases (prep + DA + Object) have the
definite article included, and some (prep + object) do
not. Is there a reason, semantically speaking, when
the DA is 1) there or 2) not there? I'm assuming at
times that it really doesn't matter, but I'm
interested in knowing when it does matter (either when
the DA is include or not).

I don't want to give a specific example because
sometimes responders zero in on that one example
rather than on the grammatical phenomenon (rule?).

Mitch Larramore
Sugar Land, Texas


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