[B-Greek] LXX grammar question of Isaiah 44:22, 57:21

Albert Pietersma albert.pietersma at sympatico.ca
Sun Apr 6 10:25:19 EDT 2008


As I see it, John raises two questions: (1) Since MT has a noun why  
doesn't the Greek have a noun? and (2) Does XAIREIN make sense in the  
context?
Though in the more isomorphic translations in the LXX, Heb verb = Gk  
verb and Heb noun = Heb noun (etc.) with painful consistency, one  
would not expect that to be the case in Gk-Isaiah.
As to whether XAIREIN makes sense in the context of 48:22——that  
depends on how one reads the context.

Since in Greek-Isaiah both EIRHNH and XARA are used as glosses for  
ShaLOM, either was an option in 48:12. (We can leave out of  
consideration here just what role 48:22 plays in relation to what  
precedes. Does it close 20-21 or does it underscore a larger segment  
of what precedes?)

Had G opted for EIRHNH he would have read the context (larger or  
smaller) as being about 'peace' (or lack thereof) in distinction from  
'war'. That is how NRSV reads it. Had G opted for XARA he would have  
read the context as being about 'joy' (or lack thereof) in  
distinction from 'sadness'. G takes the latter route, and I can see  
no problem with that (cf. EUPhROSUNH in v. 20).

However, G is apparently not content with saying that, according to  
the Lord, the impious are without joy, but rather that, given that  
the Lord has shown himself to be a rescuer (v. 20), there is no  
reason for the impious 'to whoop it up'. Thus they have nothing to  
rejoice about.
Since nouns are marked for aspect he opts for a verbal noun, which  
allows him to mark for aspect. As a result NETS (Silva) translates  
aptly: "There is no rejoicing," says the Lord, "for the impious."
Al

On Apr 5, 2008, at 8:27 PM, John Butzu wrote:
>
> Greetings!  A while back I happened to stumble across your website and
> now I seem to have a question that perhaps someone with more years of
> Koine Greek could help me with.  Here is the question:  In Isaiah  
> 44:22
> & 57:21 the same greek word is used (in the LXX) to translate the
> Hebrew word "Shalom" meaning peace or wholeness.  The word used is
> chairo (CHAIRW) which is a verb.  I checked the hebrew and sure  
> enough the word shalom
> here is a noun.  Why didn't this word get translated as CHARA (Joy)
> rather than CHAIRW (rejoice, be glad) for this does not even make  
> sense
> when you read this passage!  Is this just a mistake on the part of  
> some tired scribe or am I missing something here in the grammar?
>
> Comments, questions, answers welcome!
>
>
>
> By John Mark
>
> New Testament and Bible Student/Pastor/Scholar
>
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