[B-Greek] LXX grammar question of Isaiah 44:22, 57:21

Albert Pietersma albert.pietersma at sympatico.ca
Thu Apr 10 17:35:58 EDT 2008


On Apr 10, 2008, at 3:03 PM, Ken Penner wrote:
> Hi Al,
>
> I appreciate the clarity you bring to this question, and your  
> answer to John's original question.
>
> One note caught my eye:
>
>> Since in Greek-Isaiah both EIRHNH and XARA are used as
>> glosses for ShaLOM, either was an option in 48:12.
>
> It remains notable that SHALOM is Greeked as EIRHNH 23 times, and  
> by XARA only once (55:12). The only other gloss for SHALOM in Greek- 
> Isaiah is the infinitive XAIREIN under discussion (in 48:22 and  
> 57:21).
You are right, of course, and the odds of EIRHNH occurring in 48:12  
would have been considerably higher than for either XARA or XAIREIN.

Even though the Greek translator of Isaiah is not very consistent in  
his Hebrew-Greek equivalences, I would in this case not hesitate to  
note that, since in 48:12; 55:12; 57:21 he deviates from his default  
rendering, the renderings in all three passages may be counted as  
deliberate, hence exegetical. Had he used EIRHNH instead, one might  
have sloughed it off as just one more rote equation.
Al
>
> Ken
>
> Ken M. Penner, Ph.D. (McMaster)
>
> Greek, Hebrew, Aramaic vocabulary memorization software:
> http://purl.org/net/kmpenner/flash




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