[B-Greek] 1Tim2:12 - man or husband?

b-greek at global4.freeserve.co.uk b-greek at global4.freeserve.co.uk
Sat Apr 19 19:25:10 EDT 2008


Hi everyone
 
I've read a few authors who say that the use of the genitive singular
ANDROS in this verse means that this should be translated as husband (as
opposed to simply "man").  The use of GUNAIKI therefore refers to wife
(rather than simply "woman").  This then puts this passage in a
different light than most common translations, as it is refering the
relationship between a husband and wife, rather than between men and
women in general.
 
Can anyone comment on why the use of the genitive singular in this
context leads to this conclusion (if indeed it does), and whether
"husband" is a more suitable translation than "man" in this passage?
 
 
If this topic has been addressed in the archives, please point me to the
appropriate one.  I am a group newbie and I did read that there was a
search engine for the archives, but could not find it.  Please let me
know how to access it.
 
Many thanks in advance
 
Adrian



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