[B-Greek] Accents - who is responsible?
George F Somsel
gfsomsel at yahoo.com
Sun Aug 17 22:50:08 EDT 2008
Yes, sometimes it does make a difference. On the other hand, there are also times in English where the meaning changes depending on how a word is written. Take the phrase "were going to town." Is that "They were going to town"? Or is it "We're going to town"? I'd be willing to wager that the average person would be able to distinguish even without the apostrophe when it means "We're [we are] going to town." Context is everything.
george
gfsomsel
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_________
----- Original Message ----
From: Oun Kwon <kwonbbl at gmail.com>
To: George F Somsel <gfsomsel at yahoo.com>
Cc: Barry <nebarry at verizon.net>; B-Greek B-Greek <b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Sunday, August 17, 2008 10:09:45 PM
Subject: Re: [B-Greek] Accents - who is responsible?
On Sun, Aug 17, 2008 at 2:44 PM, George F Somsel <gfsomsel at yahoo.com> wrote:
> A. T. Robertson is like Prego spaghetti sauce -- "It's in there."
> .
> V. Accent.
<clipped>
Being a layman, I faithfully copy down the accented characters.
Otherwise I don't see any use of it for my level and scope of using
Greek.
The question would be then: what is disadvantage if we have GNT with
no accent marks (as some I find)?
I have seen a few examples where the case of word (noun, etc) changes
with different accent which may affect the meaning based on the
grammar. In one place, it affected my interpretation of it. (I wish I
could trace it down but remains buried in the piles of notes
somewhere.)
Oun.
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