[B-Greek] Antecedent of an indefinite pronoun

Carl W. Conrad cwconrad2 at mac.com
Mon Dec 22 12:02:28 EST 2008


 
On Monday, December 22, 2008, at 10:26AM, "Rod Rogers" <rngrogers at embarqmail.com> wrote:
>Carl, sorry for my brief and probably poorly
>stated question. First of all I left out the
>verse I was considering hoping that I could
>get an unbiased, purely grammatical, answer.
>Sometimes when we place a grammatical
>construction in a biblical verse we have the
>tendency to try to protect our theology first
>and then worry about the grammar. I thought
>you would appreciate going about it this way.

Sorry, I don't really much appreciate talking about an unknown quantity. 
Ask a purely grammatical question about any Biblical Greek text and let 
any theological questions take care of themselves outside of any 
discussion on list.

>I think your Galatians 1:9 will do, but if
>not I will reveal the verse I was thinking
>about. My question has to do with the
>possibility of an indefinite pronoun, TIS
>having an antecedent that is a personal (I
>probably mistakenly called it a definite)
>pronoun hHMEIS or hUMEIS. In Galatians 1:9 my
>question would be, Can TIS refer back to
>hHMEIS in verse 8? I don't think so, at least
>not directly. I think by nature of the
>indefinite pronoun it can not have a personal
>pronoun as it's antecedent but I want the
>input of those on this list on this.

Offhand I wouldn't think so, but I couldn't rule it out absolutely
without seeing what you have in  mind.

Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (ret)


>
>----- Original Message -----
>From: Carl W. Conrad
>To: Rod Rogers
>Cc: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
>Sent: Monday, December 22, 2008 7:37 AM
>Subject: Re: [B-Greek] Antecedent of an
>indefinite pronoun
>
>
>You might have stated what it is you have in
>mind -- a specific verse?
>I'm guessing something like this:
>
>ὅστις ἂν τοιαύτα πράττῃ, οὗτος ἀνάθεμα ἔστω
>[hOSTIS AN TOIAUTA PRATTHi, hOUTOS ANAQEMA
>ESTW]
>
>Normally the οὗτος [hOUTOS] isn't expressed,
>but it is certainly implicit in the sense of
>"the one" or  "that person."
>An example, Gal 1:9 ... εἴ τις ὑμᾶς
>εὐαγγελίζεται παρ' ὃ παρελάβετε ἀνάθεμα ἔστω
>[... EI TIS hUMAS EUAGGELIZETAI PAR' hO
>PARELABETE, ANAQEMA ESTW]. Here I would say
>there's an implicit demonstrative functioning
>as the subject of ANAQEMA ESTW and that the
>antecedent is the TIS of the conditional
>clause.
>
>Carl W. Conrad
>Department of Classics, Washington University
>(ret)
>
>
>On Sunday, December 21, 2008, at 11:13PM,
>"Rod Rogers" <rngrogers at embarqmail.com>
>wrote:
>>Is it possible for the antecedent of an
>>indefinite pronoun to be a definite pronoun?
>>
>>rod rogers
>>Bargersville, In
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>



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