[B-Greek] Question about John 10:18

Matthew Blair mpblair at gmail.com
Fri Feb 1 06:59:54 EST 2008


Hugh,

Thank you for the input.  I *knew* these two were the same, but still....as
a new student I always have to wonder if there is some rule I didn't know
about :-)

Thanks again,

Matthew

On Jan 31, 2008 10:25 PM, Hugh Donohoe Jr. <justusjcmylord at yahoo.com> wrote:

> Matthew,
>
> Tomato Tomato
>
> Your literal translation puts the accusative "this
> commandment" in its natural place in English, after
> the verb.
>
> The NIV translation replicates the Greek word order in
> what is still natural English idiom.
>
> Both are correct. The NIV with a formal equivalence
> philosophy ironically is more literal here (if you
> count replicating word order as more literal). I guess
> the NIV captures the emphasis of the demonstrative
> pronoun and its first position in the sentence. If
> John intended such emphasis.
>
> ex animo
>
> Hugh Donohoe
>
>
>
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