[B-Greek] John 8:40

Hugh Donohoe Jr. justusjcmylord at yahoo.com
Fri Feb 1 20:06:43 EST 2008


Gerhard,

The verb LELALHKA is first person because hOS has the
person of ME. 

ex animo 

Hugh

Greetings.

Rather puzzled by the Greek of part of John 8:40. 
Most translations render
it something like: "As it is, you are determined to
kill me, a man who has
told you the truth that I heard from God."  The
difficulty is that "who has
told you" is first person singular (lelalaaka) rather
than third (lelalaake)
as in the translations.  Or does this have something
to do with the relative
pronoun and the "me" in the preceding phrase? Maybe I
am overlooking
something obvious but none of the grammarians seem to
say anything about
this.

Thoughts on this would be helpful. 

Gerhard Visscher




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