[B-Greek] Acts 5:3 PSEUDOMAI/YEUDOMAI + Acc.
Vasile Stancu
stancu at mail.dnttm.ro
Fri Feb 29 15:06:40 EST 2008
In my opinion, the two different ways of employing this verb, with the Accusative and the Dative respectively, might be explained probably by the fact that an action, from its initiation to the final effect, may be depicted in one of its various stages of partial realisation in which the element involved in its fulfilment could be the direct agent or the other indirect agents.
Here are some examples.
2Thess 1:10
ἐπιστεύθη τὸ μαρτύριον... EPISTEUQH TO MARTURION... the testimony was believed...
The object of the verb is here in the Accusative.
Mt 21:25
Διὰ τί οὖν οὐκ ἐπιστεύσατε αὐτῷ; DIA TI OUN OUK EPISTEUSATE AUTWi? Why did you not believe him?
The object of the same verb is here in the Dative.
In the first example it is the direct agent which is emphasised - the testimony itself - which produces the final effect upon its beneficiary; therefore it is in the Accusative.
In the second example the emphasis falls on the confessor and is therefore in the Dative, as he is not the most immediate agent on which the faith is firstly directed: he is believed because the testimony or the words he uttered were previously believed.
(See also the verb ἀκουω AKOUW: it may be followed by the Accusative or the Genitive, depending on the agent involved in the listening/hearing; either the person who is speaking, or his voice, or the words of his voice, or some sound).
I believe this principle may also apply to the case of YEUDOMAI + Acc/Dat: Ananias lied to the Holy Spirit (directly, therefore the Accusative) and in so doing he lied, not to men, but to God (as a consequence, therefore the Dative).
Vasile Stancu
-----Original Message-----
From: b-greek-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org [mailto:b-greek-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org] On Behalf Of Tom Moore
Sent: Wednesday, February 27, 2008 6:09 AM
To: greek B-Greek
Subject: [B-Greek] Acts 5:3 PSEUDOMAI/YEUDOMAI + Acc.
Acts 5:3 is consistently translated: "Peter said, Ananias, why has satan filled your heart (for) you to lie *to* the holy spirit?"
But "the holy spirit" is accusative:
ψεύσασθαί σε τὸ πνεῦμα τὸ ἅγιον
YEUSASQAI SE TO PNEUMA TO hAGION
While the very next verse shows lying *to* somebody in the dative (Acts 5:4: "You did not lie to men but to God"):
Οὐκ ἐψεύσω ἀνθρώποις, ἀλλὰ τῷ θεῷ
OUK EYEUSW ANQRWPOIS ALLA TWi QEWi
Can TO PNEUMA TO hAGION be understood instead to be what Ananias lied about, rather than to whom Ananias lied: "Why has satan filled your heart (for) you to lie *about* [or to mispresent] the holy spirit?" (as being the one motivating his actions)? Given 5:4, why is "to the holy spirit" even valid?
Thanks,
Tom Moore
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