[B-Greek] Question

Sarah Madden sarah.r.madden at gmail.com
Sun Jan 13 17:23:48 EST 2008


Don --
A "negative particle" would be translated into English as "no" or "not" --
in Greek the negative particles are OU (or OUK if the next word is a vowel)
for verbs in the indicative mood, and MH for non-indicative verbs like
subjunctive, optative, infinitive, or participles.

If you mean by the "past perfect" what I would call "perfect," then the verb
would include the helper word "have" plus another verb -- as in "I have
eaten dinner" or "I have been studying" -- and it is an event that occurred
in the past but has present implications. It implies that the event took
place over a period of time instead of in an instant and may even be still
ongoing in the present. Perhaps others on the list can comment on this.

HOWEVER, if you meant "pluperfect," the translation in English would be more
like "I had eaten dinner" or "I had been studying" implying that the event
took place over a period of time in the past but is complete and is not
continuing into the present.

Sarah

On Jan 13, 2008 3:42 PM, Don Myers <dmyers at rmci.net> wrote:

> I am struggling with definition of Negative particles in the Greek NT
> along
> with Perfect Past tense.  Can someone help me with a clear definition?
>
>   Don
>
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-- 
Sarah
sarah.r.madden at gmail.com
work: 301.429.8189



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