[B-Greek] INA GINWSKOMEN - 1Jn 5:20

Mitch Larramore mitchlarramore at yahoo.com
Fri Jul 11 14:55:19 EDT 2008


RB wrote

> So I would call 1Jo 5:20 GINWSKOMEN a subjunctive, though
> as a
> probable/possible misspelling or sub-standard spelling.

Here's why I would challenge this. INA + the Indicative is not unusual WITH JOHN. If this were something Luke wrote, I might agree with RB. I'm not addressing the TC issue here at all. I'm just trying to suggest that first century writers were just like people today; they wrote with their own preferences and styles. 

I just don't like the idea of seeing first century Jewish writers writing in Greek and for us to presume there would be invariable preferences for semantic constructs. This is why people, at least as far as I'm concerned, get all bent out of shape when they read the differences in 1 Peter and 2 Peter, or between Gospel of John and Revelation. I personally would have expected far more variations than we actually do find. What are the odds that Peter chose two amanuenses with the same EXACT literary preferences? To argue otherwise would be "equally" as speculative, right?

As always, I state my case for the purpose of learning more. Please feel free to disagree or agree.

Mitch Larramore


      



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