[B-Greek] MHTI question

Iver Larsen iver_larsen at sil.org
Sun Jul 13 02:54:22 EDT 2008


----- Original Message ----- 
From: "James Ernest" <j.d.ernest at bc.edu>
To: "B-GREEK list" <b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: 13. juli 2008 00:39
Subject: Re: [B-Greek] MHTI question


> Maybe it's a question "with the effect of doubtful affirmation"? That
> would make sense. (Smyth 1772, talking about MH) . . .
> 
> 2008/7/12 James Ernest <j.d.ernest at bc.edu>:
>> Regarding this passage from Origen's Matthew commentary:
>>
>> τίνι δὲ ἔδωκε <τὴν ψυχὴν αὐτοῦ
>> λύτρον ἀντὶ πολλῶν>; οὐ γὰρ
>> δὴ τῷ θεῷ· μήτι οὖν τῷ πονηρῷ;
>> οὗτος γὰρ ἐκράτει ἡμῶν, ἕως δοθῇ
>> τὸ ὑπὲρ ἡμῶν αὐτῷ <λύτρον> ἡ τοῦ
>> Ἰησοῦ ψυχή, ἀπατηθέντι <δηλονότι
>> καὶ φαντασθέντι> ὡς δυναμένῳ αὐτῆς
>> κυριεῦσαι καὶ οὐχ ὁρῶντι ὅτι οὐ φέρει
>> τὴν ἐπὶ τῷ κατέχειν αὐτὴν βάσανον.
>>
>> TINI DE EDWKE THN YUCHN AUTOU
>> LUTRON ANTI POLLWN? OU GAR
>> DH TW QEW; MHTI OUN TW PONHRW?
>> etc.
>>
>> "And to whom did he give his soul
>> as a ransom for many? For certainly it was
>> not to God."
>>
>> Then what? Wouldn't MHTI expect a negative answe, like MH?
>> "It was not then to the evil one, was it?"
>>
>> LSJ under MHTIS says:
>> in direct questions, μή τί σοι δοκῶ ταρβεῖν; do I . . ? (i.e. I do
>> not), A.Pr.959, cf. 249, LXX Ge.20.9, Ev.Marc.4.21.
>>
>>
>> But when he quotes
>> this passage in a book, Pelikan says "Then why not the devil?"
>> --which makes better sense given the sequel.
>>
>> What is the force of MHTI?
>>
>> James Ernest

I don't find it helpful to talk about what kind of answer is expected, although I know this is standard. It seems more accurate to say that MHTI indicates that the statement is improbable or unlikely to be correct. Whether it is quite impossible, highly unlikely or somewhat unlikely but quite possible is a matter of context.

Iver Larsen



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