[B-Greek] LXX question, probably for Drs. Pietersma or Buth??

Eddie Mishoe edmishoe at yahoo.com
Mon Jul 14 12:07:51 EDT 2008


Mitch:

Be careful not to compare apples to oranges. The LXX corresponds to our KJV. It was only a translation. The Hebrew Bible was not a translation. Just as today, ancient scholars would have gone to the original source (Hebrew), not a translation (LXX). There was only 1 Hebrew text with normal variants, while there were multiple LXXs.

Paul and others quote from the LXX because their audience were not Jewish scholars; many were not Jewish at all. I can't imagine a Jewish scholar preferring the LXX to the Hebrew, no more than I can imagine a scholar today preferring the KJV to the GNT.

So, I think your question really must take into consideration whom the intended audience would be in the writings of these people. What source they used in their studies would be a different matter.

Eddie Mishoe
Pastor


--- On Sat, 7/12/08, Mitch Larramore <mitchlarramore at yahoo.com> wrote:

> From: Mitch Larramore <mitchlarramore at yahoo.com>
> Subject: [B-Greek] LXX question, probably for Drs. Pietersma or Buth??
> To: "B Greek" <b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
> Date: Saturday, July 12, 2008, 11:14 PM
> I was told that no "true" Jew ("true"
> Jew was his term) of the first century would have quoted
> from the LXX as the Christian-"Jews" did. A
> "true" Jew would have only quoted from a Hebrew
> text, according to this individual I heard speak last
> night. He further argued that the LXX was primarily used by
> Christians in the first century, which was another reason
> the "true" Jew avoided the LXX. To him, the LXX
> was "taken over as" the Christian's OT.
> I'm not qualified to comment on this but it seems to
> run counter to what little I have read in this area. That
> is certainly not the general impression I have, but I am
> open to further confirmation by noted authorities.
> 
> I don't think his argument concerned pre-Christian
> usage of the LXX. That is, I think he said the
> "true" Jews used the LXX before the time of
> Jesus. The impression I got was that the
> "exclusive" use of the LXX by Christians forced
> the Jews to abandon the Greek OT and thereby further
> separate themselves from the Christian-"Jews" by
> only authorizing and recognizing usage of and quotes from a
> Hebrew source.
> 
> Can you confirm or deny this?
> 
> Mitch Larramore
> Sugar Land, Texas
> 
> 
>       
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