[B-Greek] JN 10:20 hO PATHR hO DEDWKEN MOI PANTWN MEIZWN ESTIN

Elizabeth Kline kline_dekooning at earthlink.net
Tue Jul 22 15:29:39 EDT 2008


This is a syntax question, not a question about which reading is  
original. Metzger and Westcott both state that the reading found in  
Codex Sinaiticus*[c] and a few other manuscripts is impossible greek.  
G.Cooper (1:50.6.9) states "An article with ... a substantivized  
sentence is usually neuter. However, in Plato ... [a] sentence is  
sometimes used with an article of the gender of the substantive to  
which ... the sentence stands in apposition. Example:

Pl.Prm.128d hH hUPOQESIS, hH EI POLLA ESTIN, H hH TOU EN EINAI

Codex Sinaiticus*[c]
JOHN 10:29 hO PATHR [MOU] hO DEDWKEN MOI PANTWN MEIZWN ESTIN, (hH ante  
EI om.BT)

What if we were to read hO as an article, which makes the clause  
DEDWKEN MOI a substantive that stands in apposition to hO PATHR and  
then hO PATHR would be the subject of ESTIN?

Probably not a NT idiom but wouldn't it be more accurate to say this  
is improbable greek rather than impossible?


Elizabeth Kline







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