[B-Greek] Acts 5:3 PSEUDOMAI/YEUDOMAI + Acc.
Tom Moore
tom at katabiblon.com
Mon Mar 3 00:53:30 EST 2008
I think BDAG's explanation doesn't agree with me on this (though I think most translations do) but my understanding YSEUDOMAI + dative in Acts 5:4 is that the recipient of Ananias' lie was Peter, to which Peter replied, no, the recipient of the lie was God: "Look, it's not me (or men) you're lying to, but God" [not a literal translation].
But if I understand BDAG's distinction correctly (between the accusative and the dative), the recipient of a lie goes in the accusative, while the one being harmed by a lie goes in the dative.
Therefore, is it correct to say that, ACCORDING TO BDAG, in Acts 5:4 Ananias lied neither to men nor to God; rather, the recipient of his lie was the holy spirit, and Peter's response was, "Look, your lie to the holy spirit doesn't/didn't harm men; it harms/harmed God"?
If I have misunderstood, what distinction is BDAG drawing? (And am I wrong to assume that the writer of Acts must intend a distinction by choosing one and then the other?)
If I have understood correctly, then is BDAG the final word on this? (Is this an impertinent question?) Because in this case I'm not clear on the meaning of the verse.
I also attempted--unsuccessfully--to google BDAG's "Appianus, Liby." reference. Is it possible that it, too, within its context, could be alternatively understood as lying *about* the gods instead of *to* the gods?
Tom Moore
> -------Original Message-------
> From: Carl Conrad <cwconrad2 at mac.com>
> Subject: Re: [B-Greek] Acts 5:3 PSEUDOMAI/YEUDOMAI + Acc.
> Sent: Feb 26 '08 21:50
>
>
> On Feb 26, 2008, at 4:09 PM, Tom Moore wrote:
>
> > Acts 5:3 is consistently translated: "Peter said, Ananias, why has
> > satan filled your heart (for) you to lie *to* the holy spirit?"
> >
> > But "the holy spirit" is accusative:
> >
> > ψεύσασθαί σε τὸ πνεῦμα τὸ ἅγιον
> > YEUSASQAI SE TO PNEUMA TO hAGION
> >
> > While the very next verse shows lying *to* somebody in the dative
> > (Acts 5:4: "You did not lie to men but to God"):
> >
> > Οὐκ ἐψεύσω ἀνθρώποις, ἀλλὰ τῷ θεῷ
> > OUK EYEUSW ANQRWPOIS ALLA TWi QEWi
> >
> > Can TO PNEUMA TO hAGION be understood instead to be what Ananias
> > lied about, rather than to whom Ananias lied: "Why has satan filled
> > your heart (for) you to lie *about* [or to mispresent] the holy
> > spirit?" (as being the one motivating his actions)? Given 5:4, why
> > is "to the holy spirit" even valid?
>
> Cf. BDAG s.v. YEUDOMAI: note the second usage there:
>
> 2. to attempt to deceive by lying, tell lies to, impose upon τινὰ
> [TINA] someone (Eur., X. et al.; Plut., Alcib. 206 [26, 8], Marcell.
> 314 [27, 7]; Jos., Ant. 3, 273; 13, 25; PSI 232, 10) Ac 5:3 (Appian,
> Liby. 27 §113 τίς σε δαίμων ἔβλαψε . . .
> ψεύσασθαι θεοὺς οὓς ὤμοσας; [TIS SE
> DAIMWN ... YEUSASQAI QEOUS hOUS WMOSAS?]=‘what evil spirit beguiled
> you . . . to lie to the gods by whom you swore?’; Tat. 19, 3
> ἑαυτόν [hEAUTON]); 1 Cl 15:4 (Ps 77:36, but w. αὐτῷ
> [AUTWi]).—DELG. M-M. TW.
>
>
> Carl W. Conrad
> Department of Classics, Washington University (Retired)
>
>
>
>
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