[B-Greek] Matt 5.32 is part missing?

Gerald Ford sherlockplace at yahoo.com
Fri Mar 14 22:39:12 EDT 2008


Do we know that the woman mentioned in this verse is
"necessarily" the wife of the man mentioned in the
verse? Or, do we just assume it? Perhaps these two
examples are given together, but not as an example of
a particular married couple. If she is a person from
another marriage, then she may be the instigator
rather than the victim of a divorce. 

Gerald
(also in Sugar Land)

--- Mitch Larramore <mitchlarramore at yahoo.com> wrote:

> EGW DE LEGW hUMIN hOTI PAS hO APOLUWN THN GUNAIKA
> AUTOU PAREKTOS LOGOU PORNEIAS POIEI AUTHN
> MOICEUQHNAI
> KAI hOS EAN APOLELUMENHN GAMHSHi MOICATAI
> 
> I think what this says is that if a man divorces his
> wife (by virtue of the exception clause here, the
> implication would be that he divorces his wife for
> unlawful reasons) he causes her to commit adultery.
> So, my question is this: is there an assumption that
> she will commit adultery UPON REMARRYING or does the
> divorced status itself qualify her to be an
> adulteress?
> 
> Mitch Larramore
> Sugar Land, Texas
> 
> 
>      
>
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Gerald Ford, M.Div., M.A., LPC, LMFT
http://www.christiancounselinghouston.com


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