[B-Greek] APEQANOMEN THi
John Wilking
jcwilking at yahoo.com
Sat May 17 16:35:57 EDT 2008
--- On Sat, 5/17/08, John Wilking <jcwilking at yahoo.com> wrote:
> From: John Wilking <jcwilking at yahoo.com>
> Subject: RE: [B-Greek] APEQANOMEN THi
> To: "Webb Mealy" <webb at selftest.net>
> Date: Saturday, May 17, 2008, 4:32 PM
> I think the "absurdity" may be hiding the fact
> that each of the phrases don't make sense in English:
> "dead to sin" and "alive to God". We
> don't say "dead to rebellion" or "alive
> to my wife". This isn't primarily a translation
> question, but simply that we notice that "we died to
> sin" isn't even a possibility, and then ask why.
> Should we alter the verb sense? Or should we consider the
> possibility that it is figurative language (another way of
> altering the meaning, but of the entire structure)?
>
> So, I assume by the silence that there are no examples in
> which this structure is seen with other similar nouns,
> e.g., "dead to patronage" or "alive to the
> Emperor". (I ran it by a friend who teaches Hebrew,
> and at first glance he was unaware of it occuring in that
> language.)
>
> This led me to ask you if there is a theory of metaphor
> that is currently in use, one that would help us in
> detecting a metaphor when we might otherwise miss it. I
> spent a good amount of time years ago working on a theory
> of metonym in NT Greek and came away with something of a
> working model, but that doesn't help here.
>
> Sorry if such elaboration is a waste of time when the
> question and your silence were both clear enough.
>
> John C. Wilking
>
>
>
>
> --- On Fri, 5/16/08, Webb Mealy <webb at selftest.net>
> wrote:
>
> > From: Webb Mealy <webb at selftest.net>
> > Subject: RE: [B-Greek] APEQANOMEN THi
> > To: jcwilking at yahoo.com
> > Cc: "'Biblical Greek'"
> <b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
> > Date: Friday, May 16, 2008, 6:25 PM
> > I suppose you get the clue if taking the words in
> their
> > ordinary meanings
> > results in absurdity. Paul says "we have
> died",
> > yet he is alive and he is
> > addressing living people. So "we have died"
> has
> > to be understood as a figure
> > of speech. But that is only step one in trying to
> figure
> > out what is going
> > on.
> >
> > Webb Mealy
> >
> > -----Original Message-----
> > From: b-greek-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org
> > [mailto:b-greek-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org] On Behalf
> Of
> > John Wilking
> > Sent: Friday, May 16, 2008 2:59 PM
> > To: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
> > Subject: Re: [B-Greek] APEQANOMEN THi
> >
> > Concerning the previous post, on a broader scale, how
> do we
> > know if a phrase
> > is metaphorical?
> >
> > John C. Wilking
> >
> >
> > --- On Wed, 5/14/08, John Wilking
> > <jcwilking at yahoo.com> wrote:
> >
> > > From: John Wilking <jcwilking at yahoo.com>
> > > Subject: APEQANOMEN THi
> > > To: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
> > > Date: Wednesday, May 14, 2008, 5:30 PM
> > > I haven't found any discussion of APEQANOMEN
> THi
> > as a
> > > possible metaphor in Romans 6:2, APEQANOMEN THi
> > hAMARTIAi.
> > >
> > > John C. Wilking
> >
> >
> >
> > ---
> > B-Greek home page: http://www.ibiblio.org/bgreek
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> >
> >
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