[B-Greek] Future Perfect

George F Somsel gfsomsel at yahoo.com
Sun Nov 9 23:37:00 EST 2008


I find no FORMS which are specifically future perfect.  Robertson notes its formation through the use of the perfect part with the fut of εἰμί [EIMI]
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In the indicative the periphrastic form is the common one for the future perfect, both active, as ἔσομαι πεποιθώς[ESOMAI PEPOIQWS] (Heb. 2:13), and passive, as ἔσται λελυμένα[ESTAI LELUMENA] (Mt. 18:18). Cf. Lu. 12:52. Moulton(Prol., p. 227) finds three papyri with aorist participles in future perfectsense. 
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Robertson, A. (1919; 2006). A Grammar of the Greek New Testament in the Light of Historical Research (375). Logos.
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However, he also notes
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So with κέκραγεν[KEKRAGEN] (Jo. 1:15, intr. like the verb itself), though κεκράξομαι[KEKRACOMAI] (some MSS. in Lu. 19:40) is future perfectmiddle. 
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Robertson, A. (1919; 2006). A Grammar of the Greek New Testament in the Light of Historical Research (801). Logos.
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Observe that this is a variant reading.
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george
gfsomsel.


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________________________________
From: Kenneth Litwak <javajedi2 at yahoo.com>
To: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
Sent: Sunday, November 9, 2008 10:30:20 PM
Subject: [B-Greek] Future Perfect

Black's beginning grammar lists the Future Perfect as a verb tense. In looking into this, I found a web site that said the Future Perfect is always formed in the NT by a periphrastic though it did not say what that was. I'd guess future of EIMI + perfect participle.  However, Smyth, according to the search engine on Perseus, mentions this tense just once, giving a single form of it. I couldn't find a discussion of it in Smyth online otherwise. So I'm uncertain. Is the Future Perfect a tense with its own forms that I should at least mention to beginning students, or is it in the NT only a periphrastic and therefore should be ignored because it is an intermediate topic?  When did the actual tense get basically replaced by the periphrastic construction?


Ken Litwak


      
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