[B-Greek] Future Perfect

Bert de Haan dehaanaf at gmail.com
Tue Nov 11 20:04:45 EST 2008


Randall Buth wrote

> However, it has exegetical significance in places like Matt 16:19
>
> and 18:18. Where the question hinges on a
>
> differential reading of the Greek possibilities.
>
> ESTAI LELYMENA 'will be loosed' or 'will be having-been-loosed'?
>
> The simple reading could have been accomplished by
>
> LYQHSETAI 'will be loosed'.
>
> So some would argue that the participle must be intended to
>
> be fully explained EXHGHMENH 'exegeted', since the simple
>
> future passive was not used.
>
>
>
> However, some have noticed that
>
> LELYMENON and DEDEMENON correspond to technical terms
>
> in Hebrew ???? mutar and ???? asur. Having the status of
>
> technical terms would explain why the compound structure
>
> would be used: it would preserve the technical term as distinct.
>
>
>
> As a Hebrew speaker, I can't read 16:19 and 18:18 above without
>
> hearing the tech term. I am pretty sure that that is Matthew's
>
> intention. Certainly Jesus', since he took the idiom for granted
>
> and did not add explanation.
>
>
>
> blessings
>
> Randall
>
 First verse Matth 18:18.  AMHN LEGW hUMIN, hOSA EAN DHSHTE EPI THS
HYS ESTAI DEDEMENA EN OURANWi......
The translation 'will be having-been-loosed' is so akward as to be
almost meaningless.  (I realize you didn't present it as a usable
option.) Does 'will have been loosed' capture the meaning of  ESTAI
LELYMENA ?  This way of englishing it has a different time factor than
putting it like 'will be loosed.'
I think 'will be loosed' indicates that this action happens after the
action of DHSHTE.  'Will have been loosed' indicates that that this
action happened before the action of DHSHTE.  Does the Greek give an
indication in this regard?

Thanks.
Bert de Haan.



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