[B-Greek] Special use of the dative James 4:17

Carl Conrad cwconrad2 at mac.com
Thu Nov 20 09:10:28 EST 2008


On Nov 20, 2008, at 8:02 AM, Mark Cain wrote:

> Dative of disadvantage?
>
> EIDOTI OUN KALON POIEIN KAI MH POIOUNTI hAMARTIA AUTW ESTIN James 4:17
>
> I was discussing this passage with a friend the other day and his  
> take on this passage is that "hAMARTIA AUTW ESTIN" uses not a true  
> dative in the sense of the indirect object, but a dative of  
> advantage - disadvantage.  I wasn't sure and had to do some research  
> -- but it seems that the dative of dis/advantage occurs mostly  
> around verbs of buying, selling, depriving and motion.
>
> What do you think?  Is this a special use of the dative, or is it  
> simple the indirect object?  Is there a general grammatical rule for  
> the use of EIMI + dative?

I think I'd call it a dative of possession (and I'd call that a true  
dative rather than a locative or instrumental dative): "A sin is his  
(belongs/accrues to him) who knows how to do good and doesn't do it."


Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Retired)






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