[B-Greek] Jude 1
rhutchin at aol.com
rhutchin at aol.com
Wed Nov 26 19:50:36 EST 2008
In Jude 1, we read,
TOIS EN QEW(i) PATRI HGAPHMENOIS KAI IHSOU XRISTW(i) TETHRHMENOIS KLHTOIS.
I read this as “…EN QEW(i)…KAI (EN)…XRISTW(i)…” and it appears to me
that Jude is writing TOIS KLHTOIS but he inserts the modifying language
to distinguish the KLHTOIS from TIVES ANQRWPOI in v4 of whom he is
greatly concerned.
However, the various translations I have read all treat the modifying
insertion, EN QEW(i) PATRI HGAPHMENOIS KAI IHSOU XRISTW(i) TETHRHMENOIS,
very casually, as if the phrase could have been omitted easily without
consequence, or so it seems to me.
Should we read the opening verse in Jude as setting up a contrast
between the KLHTOIS and TIVES ANQRWPOI in v4 so that a more forceful
translation of v1 might be in order (if that is possible)? Is the Greek text pregnant with
meaning or am I asking an innocent text to do something the author did
not intend for it to do?
It reminds me of the distinction I often hear made between those who are
saved and those who are “really” saved. It seems it me that Jude is
addressing a “wheat vs tares” issue that he begins to set up in v1 but
that distinction gets lost in the usual translation of v1.
Roger Hutchinson
I sent this from another email address I have and did not see it recorded so I am sending it a second time, so if it appears twice...
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