[B-Greek] Jude 1

rhutchin at aol.com rhutchin at aol.com
Wed Nov 26 19:50:36 EST 2008


In Jude 1, we read,



TOIS EN QEW(i) PATRI HGAPHMENOIS KAI IHSOU XRISTW(i) TETHRHMENOIS KLHTOIS.



I read this as “…EN QEW(i)…KAI (EN)…XRISTW(i)…” and it appears to me 
that Jude is writing TOIS KLHTOIS but he inserts the modifying language 
to distinguish the KLHTOIS from TIVES ANQRWPOI in v4 of whom he is 
greatly concerned.



However, the various translations I have read all treat the modifying 
insertion, EN QEW(i) PATRI HGAPHMENOIS KAI IHSOU XRISTW(i) TETHRHMENOIS, 
very casually, as if the phrase could have been omitted easily without 
consequence, or so it seems to me.



Should we read the opening verse in Jude as setting up a contrast 
between the KLHTOIS and TIVES ANQRWPOI in v4 so that a more forceful 
translation of v1 might be in order (if that is possible)? Is the Greek text pregnant with 
meaning or am I asking an innocent text to do something the author did 
not intend for it to do?



It reminds me of the distinction I often hear made between those who are 
saved and those who are “really” saved. It seems it me that Jude is 
addressing a “wheat vs tares” issue that he begins to set up in v1 but 
that distinction gets lost in the usual translation of v1.



Roger Hutchinson

I sent this from another email address I have and did not see it recorded so I am sending it a second time, so if it appears twice...




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