[B-Greek] IWTA

Nikolaos Adamou nikolaos.adamou at hotmail.com
Sun Nov 30 23:48:26 EST 2008



Dr. Konstantinos Siamakis Published a 892 pages book in Thessaloniki Greece, 1988, a about alphabet, ΤΟ ΑΛΦΑΒΗΤΟ
The Hebrew letter it taken to Greek (page 372-373).  Together with o (omicron) in Greek and Latin are the most common letters (376).  A similar letter exists in Cretan alphabet, but with unknown meaning (397).  In Calious' comedy "Grammatical Theory" appears in its position in the Greek alphabet (404). In 37 before Christ, king Herod the first used it in the Aramaic alphabet (422).  In Aramaic it is the smallest letter among all, and as such, Christ makes the reference.  Origen Ὠριγένης saw some of these in manuscripts during the third century, even its use ended after 135 after Christ.  It is used in Aeolic Greek with the double ΣΣ & TT (460).   In Dorian Greek changes its writen form and it smplifies its form from the Jewdaic getting its current form (472).
During the 9th century with the introduction of the lower case letters starts to be used as a subscript - ὑπογεγραμμένον ἰῶτα ἤ προσγεγραμμένον.  As such it is chanted as an ἀτελῆς κατάληξις (Chrysanthos - Theory of Music, Istanbul 1833).  It is also used in most of the diphtonges in the AE sound ΑΙ, and the family of EE sound (EI, OI, YI).
As an arithmetic value, represents 10 and as such is found in many documents (Siamakis p. 610).

We do not know if Christ knew Greek, but he knew IWTA in Aramaic and we have evidence in the Bible.
The point He made is that there is no need to change the bible by adding deleting and changing texts.  The newly published book by Kalamos Press, ISBN 978-960-92649-0-7 ΕΠΙΚΙΝΔΥΝΕΣ ΜΕΤΑΦΡΑΣΕΙΣ ΤΗΣ ΒΙΒΛΟΥ ἀπὸ ἀλλοiωμένα κείμενα (in Greek) Dangerous Translations of the Bible from deformed texts shows the importance of Jesus' point.



> Date: Wed, 26 Nov 2008 21:17:06 -0800
> From: gfsomsel at yahoo.com
> To: fjanzen at gmx.net; b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
> Subject: Re: [B-Greek] IWTA
> 
> ἀμὴν γὰρ λέγω ὑμῖν·ἕως ἂν παρέλθῃ ὁ οὐρανὸς καὶ ἡ γῆ, ἰῶτα ἓν ἢ μία κεραία οὐ μὴ παρέλθῃ ἀπὸ τοῦ νόμου, ἕως ἂν πάντα γένηται.
> AMNN GAR LEGW hUMIN:  hEWS AN PARELQHi hO OURANOS KAI hH GH, IWTA hEN H MIA KERAIA OU MH PARELQHi APO TOU NOMOU, hEWS AN PANTA GENHTAI
> 
> 
> Part of the answer to your question depends upon whether one conceives that Jesus was speaking in Aramaic or Greek.  There is even a possibility that he may have spoken Hebrew or Latin.  In any case, what we have is Greek.  There really isn't an indication that these terms were translation from Hebrew or Aramaic except for the fact that HALOT seems to think that the Hebrew word &eRe+ [or "seret" to make it easier to read for those not accustomed to Hebrew transliteration] which indicates a punctuation mark or a slash.  The Greek usage is perfectly normal since LSJ has entries for this use dating from 4 BC through 4 AD [IWTA we know].  The KERAIA indicated a stroke much like one might in printer's terms call a serif [check this in an English dictionary if it is not clear to you].  I don't know Portuguese though I am sometimes able to understand fragments from Spanish.  In this passage the _Biblia de las Americas_ uses the term "tilde" which I
>  understand to reference the wavy line over the "n" [ñ].  Perhaps you also use this term in Portuguese.
> 
> As regards your question of whether this had significance for understanding the authority of the Hebrew text as well as the Greek translation, if by "extrapolating the list" you are asking whether you are going beyond the list's boundaries, I would say, "Yes."  I would, however, recommend that you translate this into the most closely comparable term in Portuguese you can find.
>  george
> gfsomsel 
> 
> 
> … search for truth, hear truth, 
> learn truth, love truth, speak the truth, hold the truth, 
> defend the truth till death.
> 
> 
> - Jan Hus
> _________ 
> 
> 
> 
> 
> ________________________________
> From: Fridolin Janzen <fjanzen at gmx.net>
> To: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
> Sent: Wednesday, November 26, 2008 10:24:00 AM
> Subject: [B-Greek] IWTA
> 
> Dear friends,
> 
> When Jesus mentioned the letter IWTA in Matthew 5:18 was He making reference
> to the Hebrew yod or to the Greek IWTA?
> Could it be that by mentioning KERAIA He was referring to the Hebrew text
> and by mentioning IWTA He was referring to the Greek translation of the OT?
> Would this than mean that both, the Hebrew and the Greek translation of the
> OT are equally to be considered to be the Word of God to be taken seriously
> up to its smallest particles?  or could this be a possible prophetic
> reference to the writing of the Greek NT?
> If He was referring to the Hebrew letter, why didn't He use the Hebrew word
> for it?
> Am I extrapolating the list?
> Why is this important to me? Well, how should I translate the words into
> Portuguese? Should I maintain the original, transliterate them, or should I
> use a Portuguese idiom that transmits the same idea?
> 
> 
> 
> Fridolin Janzen
> Presidente da Sociedade Origem & Destino
> Rua Dom Aquino, 1354, sala 41
> Campo Grande, MS
> Brasil
> 0055-67-3321-4288
> 
> www.bibelonline.net
> www.batistas.net
> www.origemedestino.org.br
> 
> 
> 
> 
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> 
>       
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